Ati rn 46 med surg exam

Ati rn 46 med surg exam

Total Questions : 28

Showing 10 questions Sign up for more
Question 1: View

A nurse is teaching several newly licensed nurses about cardiac valve replacement. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

A. Among the four heart valves (aortic, mitral, tricuspid, and pulmonary), the aortic and mitral valves are indeed the most commonly replaced valves. Aortic stenosis and mitral valve regurgitation are frequent indications for valve replacement
B. Aortic stenosis primarily affects the left ventricle, not the right. Aortic stenosis causes an obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta, leading to increased left ventricular systolic pressure and increased afterload (the resistance the heart must overcome to eject blood). The right ventricular systolic pressure is not directly affected by aortic stenosis.
C. Mitral valve insufficiency (or regurgitation) primarily causes problems on the left side of the heart. When the mitral valve does not close properly, blood flows back into the left atrium during systole, increasing left atrial pressure. This can lead to pulmonary congestion and eventually affect the right side of the heart.
D. The tricuspid valve is on the right side of the heart and its inadequate closure (tricuspid regurgitation) affects the right side of the heart, leading to right-sided heart failure and systemic venous congestion. It does not directly cause overload in the left ventricle. Instead, the left ventricle is typically overloaded in conditions affecting the left side of the heart, such as mitral valve regurgitation or aortic stenosis.


Question 2: View

A nurse is teaching a client who is postoperative following the insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Patients with a newly inserted pacemaker are generally advised to avoid high-impact activities or those that can cause jolting or trauma to the chest area for a period longer than 4 weeks, usually around 6 to 8 weeks.
B. Metal detectors can interfere with the pacemaker's function, so it's important to inform airport security personnel about the device.
C. This instruction is outdated and generally unnecessary. Modern pacemakers are not affected by microwave ovens, and there is no need to avoid having one in the home. Microwaves emit radiation that does not interfere with pacemaker function.
D. Hiccups can be a sign of pacemaker malfunction and should be reported to the healthcare provider.
E. Monitoring the pulse rate can help to detect any changes in heart rhythm that may indicate pacemaker malfunction.
F. Tight clothing can restrict movement and irritate the skin around the insertion site.


Question 3: View

Which action should the nurse include in a community health program to decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever?

Explanation

A. Rheumatic fever is a complication that can arise from untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat). Educating community members about the importance of seeking medical treatment for strep throat is crucial because timely antibiotic treatment can prevent the development of rheumatic fever.
B. Prophylactic antibiotics are often recommended for individuals who have had rheumatic fever or have a family history of the condition to prevent recurrence. While this is important for secondary prevention in high-risk individuals, it is more of a targeted approach rather than a broad community health strategy.
C. Currently, there is no widely available vaccine specifically for streptococcal infections or rheumatic fever. Research is ongoing, but no vaccine has been proven effective and available for general use in preventing streptococcal infections.
D. Monitoring temperature during a sore throat can help identify an infection, but it does not directly address the prevention of rheumatic fever. The key issue is ensuring that sore throats are evaluated and treated appropriately to prevent complications like rheumatic fever.


Question 4: View

After receiving shift change report, which of the following patients should the nurse see first?

Explanation

A. While mitral valve prolapse requires ongoing monitoring, it is not a critical or immediately life- threatening condition.
B. A urine output of 35 mL/hr is slightly low but not critically concerning. This patient can be monitored closely and interventions can be implemented if necessary, but they do not require immediate attention.
C. New-onset flank pain and hematuria in a patient with infective endocarditis suggest a potential complication, such as renal infarction or abscess. These conditions can be life-threatening and require prompt intervention.
D. While this patient requires ongoing monitoring, they are not in a critical condition and can be seen after addressing the patient with infective endocarditis.


Question 5: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who has suspected cardiac tamponade. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate the provider to order first?

Explanation

A. An ECG is used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. While it can provide valuable information about heart rhythm and detect signs of ischemia or other cardiac abnormalities, it is not the most specific test for diagnosing cardiac tamponade.
B. An echocardiogram is the most specific and preferred diagnostic test for cardiac tamponade. It uses ultrasound waves to visualize the heart and the pericardial space, allowing the provider to detect the presence and amount of fluid in the pericardial sac. It can also assess the effects of the fluid on heart function, such as diastolic filling impairment.
C. A CT scan can be useful in diagnosing cardiac tamponade, especially if there is a need to assess the pericardial space in detail or if there is a concern about other underlying conditions. However, it is not typically the first test ordered for tamponade.
D. A chest x-ray can reveal signs of cardiac tamponade, such as an enlarged cardiac silhouette if the fluid accumulation is significant. It is useful for initial evaluation and to rule out other causes of symptoms, but it is not as definitive as an echocardiogram


Question 6: View

A patient has been diagnosed with Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse recognizes the need for antibiotic therapy to help prevent the development of which serious condition

Explanation

A. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that is not directly related to Group A streptococcal pharyngitis.
B. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of Group A streptococcal pharyngitis, but they are not the most serious complication.
C. A serious complication of untreated Group A streptococcal pharyngitis, rheumatic fever can cause inflammation of the heart, joints, skin, and brain. With prompt antibiotic treatment, the risk of developing rheumatic fever can be significantly reduced.
D. Fatigue and malaise are common symptoms of many illnesses, including Group A streptococcal pharyngitis. However, the most serious complication of untreated Group A streptococcal pharyngitis is rheumatic fever.


Question 7: View

A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats per minute and blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg, reports dizziness. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

Explanation

A. Digoxin is a medication used primarily to treat heart failure and certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation. It works by increasing the force of heart contractions and slowing the heart rate. However, digoxin is not typically used to treat bradycardia and may actually exacerbate the condition by further slowing the heart rate.
B. While monitoring is an essential part of patient care, it is not sufficient alone in this situation. The client’s heart rate is very low (45 beats per minute) and their blood pressure is low (82/60 mm Hg), which suggests they are symptomatic and potentially unstable.
C. Defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. It is not used for sinus bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate rather than a rapid, disorganized rhythm requiring electrical shock.

D. Transcutaneous pacing involves applying external pacing pads to the skin to stimulate the heart and increase the heart rate. This is a suitable intervention for symptomatic bradycardia, especially when accompanied by low blood pressure and dizziness.


Question 8: View

When teaching a patient about the long-term consequences of rheumatic fever, the nurse should discuss the possibility of

Explanation

A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle refers to the thickening of the walls of the right ventricle of the heart. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is not a typical consequence of rheumatic fever. Instead, rheumatic fever more commonly affects the heart valves.
B. Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when there is obstruction of the superior vena cava, which is a major vein that carries blood from the head, neck, and upper body to the heart. It is not a direct consequence of rheumatic fever.
C. Valvular heart disease is a significant long-term consequence of rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can cause inflammation of the heart valves, leading to damage that may result in stenosis (narrowing) or regurgitation (leakage) of the valves. The mitral and aortic valves are most commonly affected. This damage can progress over time and lead to chronic heart problems, including valvular heart disease.
D. Pulmonary hypertension refers to high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs. It can be caused by various conditions, including chronic lung diseases and left heart disease. While rheumatic fever primarily affects the heart valves and can potentially lead to heart failure, it is not a direct cause of pulmonary hypertension.


Question 9: View

A patient admitted with diagnosis of pericarditis develops hypotension, shortness of breath, tachycardia, distended neck veins. Which of the following procedures with the nurse anticipate assisting for this emergent situation?

Explanation

A. An endovascular graft procedure is used to treat conditions such as abdominal aortic aneurysms or other vascular issues by placing a graft within the blood vessels. It is not related to the treatment of pericarditis or cardiac tamponade.

B. Pericardiocentesis is a procedure used to remove excess fluid from the pericardial space to relieve pressure on the heart. This is an emergent intervention for cardiac tamponade and would be the appropriate procedure to assist with in this situation. It involves inserting a needle through the chest wall into the pericardial space to aspirate the fluid, which helps to restore normal heart function and improve symptoms.
C. A transesophageal echocardiogram is an imaging procedure used to obtain detailed images of the heart and its structures. While it is useful for assessing cardiac conditions and can help diagnose cardiac tamponade, it is not a treatment.
D. Peritoneal dialysis is a procedure used to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly. It is not related to the management of pericarditis or cardiac tamponade.


Question 10: View

Which of the following are risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Smoking is a significant risk factor for the development of AAA. It contributes to the degradation of elastin and collagen in the arterial wall, which weakens the aorta and increases the risk of aneurysm formation. Smokers have a higher incidence of AAA compared to non-smokers.
B. A family history of aneurysms is another important risk factor. Genetic predisposition can increase the likelihood of developing AAA, indicating that the condition may run in families. Individuals with a family history of AAA are at higher risk and should be monitored more closely.
C. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is often referred to as "good" cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream. Higher levels of HDL cholesterol are generally considered protective against cardiovascular diseases, including AAA.
D. Total cholesterol levels are used to assess cardiovascular risk. A total cholesterol level of 170 mg/dL is within the normal range (less than 200 mg/dL). While high cholesterol can contribute to cardiovascular diseases, a total cholesterol level of 170 mg/dL is not considered a risk factor for AAA.
E. Diabetes mellitus is not typically considered a direct risk factor for AAA. However, diabetes is a risk factor for atherosclerosis, which can contribute to various vascular conditions.


You just viewed 10 questions out of the 28 questions on the Ati rn 46 med surg exam Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams.

Subscribe Now

learning

Join Naxlex Nursing for nursing questions & guides! Sign Up Now