Ati Rn comprehensive predictor 2023
Ati Rn comprehensive predictor 2023
Total Questions : 159
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is caring for a client at the clinic.
Complete the following sentence by
The client is at risk for
Explanation
An hCG level of 30,000 IU/L is significantly elevated and may suggest a molar pregnancy, especially when values are higher than expected for gestational age. In a molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole), trophoblastic tissue proliferates abnormally, producing excessive hCG. This level, in combination with normal hemoglobin and hematocrit, makes other causes like spontaneous or induced abortion less likely.
Key Takeaways:
- Extremely elevated hCG levels can indicate gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy).
- Molar pregnancy is a nonviable pregnancy characterized by abnormal trophoblast proliferation.
- Normal hemoglobin and hematocrit reduce the likelihood of current bleeding or miscarriage.
A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating a health care proxy in situations that require a durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC). Which of the following information should the charge nurse include?
Explanation
A. "The proxy should manage legal issues for the client." Legal matters are outside the scope of a health care proxy’s role. The proxy is authorized only to make medical decisions and does not handle legal or court-related concerns on behalf of the client.
B. "The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia." The health care proxy is activated when the client is temporarily or permanently incapacitated, such as during surgery under anesthesia. At that point, the proxy can make treatment decisions aligned with the client’s values and previously expressed wishes.
C. "The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises." Financial decisions are the responsibility of a financial power of attorney, not a health care proxy. A DPAHC limits the proxy’s authority strictly to medical and treatment-related decisions.
D. "The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so." The health care proxy is not active while the client is competent and able to make decisions. The proxy only assumes responsibility when the client lacks decision-making capacity due to illness, unconsciousness, or cognitive impairment.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Provide frequent stimulation for the newborn. Excessive stimulation can worsen symptoms in newborns with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS), including irritability, tremors, and difficulty sleeping. These infants need a calm, low-stimulation environment to reduce neurologic stress.
B. Encourage frequent eye contact with the newborn during feedings. While bonding is important, prolonged or forced eye contact can overstimulate a newborn with NAS. These infants often have difficulty regulating sensory input and may become more irritable with excessive interaction.
C. Decrease the lighting levels in the nursery. A dim, quiet environment helps soothe infants experiencing NAS. Reducing lighting can minimize sensory overload, promote rest, and support neurologic regulation during withdrawal.
D. Wrap the newborn loosely in a blanket. Loose wrapping does not provide the security and containment that helps calm an overstimulated infant. Instead, swaddling the newborn snugly can reduce tremors, promote sleep, and offer comfort during withdrawal symptoms.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for intermittent heat therapy for a foot injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for heat therapy?
Explanation
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm. While an abdominal aortic aneurysm is a serious vascular condition, it is not directly affected by localized heat therapy to an extremity such as the foot. However, heat should still be used cautiously near major vascular abnormalities.
B. Phlebitis. Heat therapy is often used to reduce inflammation and promote circulation in conditions like phlebitis. Although care must be taken, it is not an absolute contraindication and may actually be prescribed in some mild cases under supervision.
C. Osteoarthritis. Heat therapy is commonly used for osteoarthritis to relax muscles, improve joint mobility, and alleviate stiffness and discomfort. It is considered a beneficial and appropriate treatment modality for this condition.
D. Peripheral neuropathy. Clients with peripheral neuropathy may have impaired sensation, making them unable to detect excessive heat. This puts them at high risk for burns or thermal injury, making heat therapy a contraindication for safety reasons.
A nurse is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the nurse make in the medical record?
Explanation
A. "Morphine 3.0 mg sub q every 4 hr PRN for pain." Including a trailing zero (3.0 mg) is considered unsafe and is discouraged in medication documentation. It increases the risk of a tenfold overdose if the decimal is missed.
B. "Morphine 3 mg subcutaneous every 4 hr PRN for pain." This entry uses the correct dosage format without a trailing zero, the full term "subcutaneous" instead of abbreviations, and proper medical terminology. It adheres to safe documentation practices as per The Joint Commission guidelines.
C. "Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SC” is considered unsafe and prone to misinterpretation. Also, "q" for "every" is discouraged in clinical documentation due to potential misreading and error.
D. "Morphine 3 mg SQ every 4 hr PRN for pain." The abbreviation “SQ” can be misinterpreted or mistaken for “5 every” or other terms. Safe practice requires spelling out “subcutaneous” to prevent errors in medication administration.
A nurse is obtaining a client's manual blood pressure and is having difficulty auscultating sounds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Apply the largest cuff available. Using a cuff that is too large can result in falsely low readings. Cuff size should match the client’s arm circumference to ensure accuracy, but simply switching to the largest cuff does not resolve difficulty in auscultation.
B. Deflate the cuff quickly. Rapid deflation can cause the nurse to miss the systolic and diastolic sounds, making it harder to obtain an accurate reading. The cuff should be deflated at a steady rate of 2–3 mmHg per second.
C. Use the palpatory method to determine blood pressure. When sounds are difficult to auscultate, the palpatory method is a reliable alternative. This involves palpating the radial pulse while inflating the cuff to estimate systolic pressure, which helps guide a more accurate auscultatory attempt.
D. Place the arm above the level of the client's heart. Elevating the arm above heart level can lower the pressure artificially, resulting in an inaccurate measurement. For correct results, the arm should be supported at heart level.
A nurse enters a client's room and sees a small fire in the client's bathroom. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should take. (Move the steps into the box, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)
Explanation
D. Transport the client to another area of the nursing unit. The first priority is rescue ensuring the client’s safety by removing them from the immediate area of danger, which is consistent with the "RACE" fire safety protocol (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish).
A. Activate the facility's fire alarm system. Once the client is safe, the next step is to activate the fire alarm to notify other staff and initiate emergency protocols throughout the facility.
B. Close all nearby windows and doors. Containing the fire by closing doors and windows limits the spread of smoke and flames, buying time for response teams to arrive and control the situation.
C. Use the unit's fire extinguisher to attempt to put out the fire. If it is safe and the fire is small and manageable, the final step is to extinguish the fire using a fire extinguisher, following appropriate safety procedures.
A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a toddler.
For each assessment finding below, click to specify if the assessment finding is consistent with Crohn's disease, appendicitis, or intussusception. Each finding may support more than 1 disease process.
Explanation
- Pain rating: Severe, intermittent abdominal pain where the child draws their knees to the chest and then returns to normal behavior is a classic symptom of intussusception. Neither Crohn’s disease nor appendicitis typically presents with this pattern, appendicitis pain is usually constant and worsening, while Crohn’s pain is chronic and non-episodic.
- Vomiting: Vomiting in intussusception is common and often non-bilious in early stages, aligning with the child's light-colored emesis. Vomiting also occurs in appendicitis, especially in the early stages. However, it is not a prominent or early symptom of Crohn’s disease unless obstruction is present.
- Stool: The presence of blood and mucus in the stool ("currant jelly stool") is strongly associated with intussusception and may also occur in Crohn’s disease during flares due to colonic inflammation. Appendicitis does not typically cause bloody or mucoid stools, making this finding inconsistent with that diagnosis.
- Temperature: A temperature of 37.4°C is within normal limits, appendicitis however may present with low grade fever. The absence of fever at this time limits its diagnostic value in this case.
- Abdominal findings: A distended abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds and a palpable sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant is highly indicative of intussusception. These findings are not characteristic of appendicitis, which usually involves RLQ pain, or Crohn’s, which rarely presents with a discrete palpable mass.
A nurse is caring for a client who is obese. The client is crying and states, "Everyone is staring at me because of my weight." Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Explanation
A. "How long have you struggled with your weight?" While this may provide background information, it shifts the focus to the client's weight history rather than validating their current emotional experience and distress.
B. "Let's discuss some weight loss strategies that might work for you." This response prematurely shifts to problem-solving and weight management without first addressing the client’s emotional needs or acknowledging their feelings of embarrassment and vulnerability.
C. "It sounds like you're saying that you feel uncomfortable around others." This is a therapeutic, reflective response that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express more about their emotional experience, fostering trust and emotional support.
D. "Have you always felt uncomfortable being overweight?" This question may come across as judgmental and focuses too much on the client's body image history rather than their current emotional experience, potentially worsening feelings of shame.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
Explanation
A. Raise the head of the client's bed to a high-Fowler's position. A high-Fowler's position causes excessive hip flexion, which increases the risk of prosthetic dislocation after hip arthroplasty. Hip flexion should generally not exceed 90 degrees postoperatively.
B. Keep an abduction pillow between the client's legs. An abduction pillow maintains the leg in proper alignment and prevents internal rotation and adduction, which are common mechanisms of hip dislocation after surgery. It is a key intervention in protecting the surgical joint.
C. Elevate the client's affected leg on a pillow when in bed. Elevating the leg is appropriate for reducing swelling, but if not done correctly, it can cause improper hip positioning. It does not prevent dislocation unless combined with other alignment strategies.
D. Position the client's knees slightly higher than the hips when up in a chair. This position promotes hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, which increases the risk of dislocating the hip prosthesis. The hips should remain higher than the knees to prevent excessive flexion.
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