Hesi rn 301 pharmacology final exam
Hesi rn 301 pharmacology final exam
Total Questions : 51
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreThe nurse is planning to administer sucralfate to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which action should the nurse indude in this patient's plan of care?
Explanation
A. Administer sucralfate once a day, preferably at bedtime: Sucralfate is typically administered multiple times a day, not just once. It is commonly given in divided doses, often four times a day, to ensure adequate coverage and effectiveness. Administering it at bedtime alone would not provide consistent therapeutic effects.
B. Monitor for electrolyte imbalance: Sucralfate is not known to cause significant electrolyte imbalances. It works locally in the gastrointestinal tract and does not usually affect electrolyte levels, so monitoring for electrolyte imbalances is not a primary concern with this medication.
C. Assess for secondary Candida infection: While sucralfate may affect the gastrointestinal flora, secondary Candida infections are not a common side effect. Sucralfate is not an antibiotic and does not typically lead to fungal infections.
D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach: Sucralfate should be administered on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals. This allows the medication to properly adhere to the ulcer site and form a protective barrier, enhancing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcers.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving calcium acetate 667 mg PO. A decrease in which blood value indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
Explanation
A. Phosphate: Calcium acetate is used primarily to manage hyperphosphatemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). It works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption, which helps lower phosphate levels in the blood. A decrease in phosphate levels indicates that the calcium acetate is effectively controlling phosphate levels.
B. pH: While maintaining normal pH levels is important in CKD, calcium acetate does not directly affect blood pH. The primary role of calcium acetate is to manage phosphate levels rather than pH balance.
C. Calcium: Calcium acetate is a phosphate binder and does not primarily target calcium levels. It can influence calcium levels indirectly, but a decrease in calcium is not the direct measure of the medication's effectiveness. Instead, monitoring phosphate levels is more indicative of the medication’s effectiveness.
D. Potassium: Calcium acetate does not have a direct effect on potassium levels. It is specifically used to manage phosphate levels in CKD patients. Changes in potassium levels would not indicate the effectiveness of calcium acetate.
During a home visit, a client informs the nurse about feeling like the heart is skipping beats. When reviewing the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking hydrochlorothiazide. Based on these assessment data, the nurse plans to obtain a blood sample to check for which condition?
Explanation
A. Hypokalemia: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine production. A common side effect of thiazide diuretics is hypokalemia, which can lead to symptoms such as palpitations or the sensation of the heart skipping beats. Therefore, it is crucial to check the client’s potassium levels to determine if hypokalemia is contributing to the client's symptoms.
B. Hyponatremia: While thiazide diuretics can affect sodium levels, hypokalemia is more directly associated with the symptoms described. Hyponatremia (low sodium levels) might also occur but is less commonly linked to the symptom of a skipped heartbeat compared to hypokalemia.
C. Hyperphosphatemia: Hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause significant changes in phosphate levels, and hyperphosphatemia is not typically associated with the sensation of skipped heartbeats.
D. Hypermagnesemia: This condition, which involves elevated magnesium levels, is not a common side effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypokalemia is a more relevant concern for the symptoms described.
A client is receiving IV vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the medication. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?
Explanation
A. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: This timing is correct for monitoring vancomycin levels. The peak level is typically measured immediately after the completion of the infusion (though peak levels are less commonly required for vancomycin), and the trough level is measured just before the next dose is due, 30 minutes before administration. This approach helps in evaluating the medication's efficacy and safety.
B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication: This timing is not ideal. The peak level for vancomycin is usually measured immediately after the dose rather than one hour later. Trough levels are measured closer to the next dose, typically 30 minutes before the next dose.
C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication: Measuring levels two hours after the dose completion is too late for a peak level. The trough level should be measured closer to the next dose, generally 30 minutes before the next administration.
D. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: Measuring the level 30 minutes into the infusion is not appropriate for peak levels, which are typically measured.
A client is using the nasal spray hormone calcitonin to reduce bone loss from osteoporosis. To reduce rhinitis associated with administration of the nasal spray, the nurse should provide the client with which instruction?
Explanation
A. Alternate the use of each nostril when administering the nasal spray each day: Alternating nostrils can help reduce local irritation and rhinitis associated with the use of nasal spray medications. This practice allows each nostril to recover and reduces the risk of continuous irritation from the spray.
B. Do not lie down within thirty minutes of use of the nasal spray: While this can help ensure the medication is absorbed properly, it is not specifically aimed at reducing rhinitis. It is more important to manage irritation by alternating nostrils.
C. Use a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) PRN to reduce any inflammation that may occur: NSAIDs might not be suitable for everyone, and using them could mask symptoms or lead to additional side effects. They are not a primary strategy for managing rhinitis caused by nasal spray use.
D. Take an over-the-counter antihistamine with each daily dose of nasal spray: Antihistamines are not typically used to manage rhinitis caused by nasal sprays. Additionally, combining medications should be done cautiously and usually under medical advice.
Prior to administration of the initial dose of the gastrointestinal (GI) agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the patient?
Explanation
A. Taking an antiemetic medication: This information is not directly relevant before administering misoprostol. Misoprostol does not typically interact with antiemetic medications in a way that would change the administration plan.
B. Allergy to aspirin: While important to know for general medication safety, misoprostol's primary concern is its potential effects on pregnancy rather than an allergy to aspirin.
C. Currently pregnant: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to induce uterine contractions and cause miscarriage. It is crucial to confirm that the patient is not pregnant before administering this medication.
D. History of glaucoma: While important for other medications, a history of glaucoma is not a primary concern when administering misoprostol.
The nurse is caring for a client who has a finger stick blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL (7.21 mmol/L) Prior to administering the scheduled dose of acarbose, the nurse is informed that morning meal trays will be 30 minutes late. Which action should the nurse take?
Reference Range:
Glucose [74 to 106 mg/dl. (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)]
Explanation
A. Administer the medication: Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that should be taken with the first bite of a meal to effectively manage postprandial blood glucose levels. Administering it before the meal is inappropriate as it can lead to inadequate glucose control.
B. Notify the healthcare provider: While notifying the healthcare provider might be necessary if there are significant issues, it is not the immediate action needed in this situation. The priority is to manage the timing of the medication relative to the meal.
C. Hold the medication until the meal trays arrive: Acarbose should be taken with food to work effectively in controlling blood glucose levels after meals. If the meal is delayed, the medication should be held until the meal is ready to ensure proper administration.
D. Obtain another finger stick blood glucose level: Rechecking the blood glucose level does not address the issue of the timing of the acarbose administration. The focus should be on ensuring the medication is taken with the meal.
An older female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this patient's comment, which previous laboratory results should the nurse compare with today's laboratory report?
Explanation
A. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise: Acetaminophen is not commonly associated with significant renal impairment or changes in serum potassium levels, making this a less relevant consideration.
B. Expect to find an increase in today's activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) as compared to last quarter's due to bleeding: Acetaminophen does not significantly affect APTT or bleeding risk, so changes in APTT would not be expected due to acetaminophen use.
C. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit, expecting an increase today due to dehydration: Acetaminophen is not known to cause changes in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels or dehydration-related increases in these values.
D. Look for an increase in today's lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage: Acetaminophen overdose or chronic high use can lead to liver damage, which would be indicated by elevated LDH levels. Monitoring LDH is appropriate to assess for potential liver damage related to acetaminophen use.
A client receives a prescription for methotrexate. Which information provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?
Explanation
A. Obtain a platelet count weekly: Regular monitoring of platelet counts is important for clients on methotrexate due to the risk of bone marrow suppression and potential thrombocytopenia. This instruction is appropriate and necessary.
B. Take the medication during pregnancy: Methotrexate is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects and potential to cause fetal harm. It is crucial for clients to avoid using methotrexate while pregnant or planning to become pregnant.
C. Use folic acid to protect the liver: While folic acid is often used to help reduce the side effects of methotrexate, particularly its gastrointestinal effects and potential for liver toxicity, it is not used to "protect the liver" per se. The correct approach is to use folic acid as directed by a healthcare provider, often to mitigate some of the side effects of methotrexate.
D. Store the medication at room temperature: Methotrexate should be stored according to the manufacturer's instructions, which usually involve keeping it at room temperature. This information is correct and does not require additional instruction.
Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with early stage Alzheimer's Disease. The client's daughter tells the nurse that she plans to start administering the drug when her mother's symptoms are no longer manageable, in hopes that her mother will not have to go to a nursing home. How should the nurse respond?
Explanation
A. Affirm the decision to use the medication when the symptoms start to worsen: Waiting to start rivastigmine until symptoms worsen may not be the best approach, as early intervention can be more beneficial in managing symptoms and slowing disease progression.
B. Assess the client’s current mental status before deciding to support the decision: While assessing the client's mental status is important, the immediate concern is to educate on the timing of medication use rather than evaluating the current state of the client.
C. Confirm that the daughter is aware of the progressive nature of the disease: It is important for the daughter to understand the progressive nature of Alzheimer's disease, but this does not directly address the timing for starting rivastigmine.
D. Explain that the drug should be used early in the course of the disease process: Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is most effective when started early in the course of Alzheimer's disease. Early use can help manage symptoms more effectively and potentially delay progression.
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