The nurse is planning to administer sucralfate to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which action should the nurse indude in this patient's plan of care?
Administer sucralfate once a day, preferably at bedtime.
Monitor for electrolyte imbalance.
Assess for secondary Candida infection.
Give sucralfate on an empty stomach.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Administer sucralfate once a day, preferably at bedtime: Sucralfate is typically administered multiple times a day, not just once. It is commonly given in divided doses, often four times a day, to ensure adequate coverage and effectiveness. Administering it at bedtime alone would not provide consistent therapeutic effects.
B. Monitor for electrolyte imbalance: Sucralfate is not known to cause significant electrolyte imbalances. It works locally in the gastrointestinal tract and does not usually affect electrolyte levels, so monitoring for electrolyte imbalances is not a primary concern with this medication.
C. Assess for secondary Candida infection: While sucralfate may affect the gastrointestinal flora, secondary Candida infections are not a common side effect. Sucralfate is not an antibiotic and does not typically lead to fungal infections.
D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach: Sucralfate should be administered on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals. This allows the medication to properly adhere to the ulcer site and form a protective barrier, enhancing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Warfarin: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not used for reversing the effects of heparin. They are different classes of anticoagulants with distinct reversal agents.
B. Vitamin K: Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin.
C. Protamine sulfate: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin overdose. It neutralizes the effects of heparin and is used to quickly reverse its anticoagulant effects in case of an overdose or excessive bleeding.
D. Diphenhydramine HCl: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and has no role in reversing anticoagulants.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hematocrit 42% (0.42 volume fraction): This value is within the normal range for hematocrit (42% to 52%). Therefore, it does not indicate an immediate concern.
B. Positive guaiac of stool: A positive guaiac test for occult blood in the stool indicates gastrointestinal bleeding. Given the client's history of self-treating with ibuprofen (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and his symptoms of fatigue and dizziness, this finding suggests possible gastrointestinal bleeding due to NSAID-induced ulcers or bleeding. This requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
C. Gastric pH 2: While the gastric pH is on the acidic side, it is within the normal range for gastric acid (1.5 to 3.5). This finding does not necessarily indicate an acute problem by itself.
D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL (8.07 mmol/L): Although this hemoglobin level is slightly below the normal range for males (14 to 18 g/dL), it is not as critical as a positive guaiac test for stool blood. It might be worth monitoring, but it is not as urgent as addressing potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
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