A 16-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit and states that she is depressed and anxious. The client appears frail and is wearing baggy clothes. When it is time for lunch, the client states, "I can't eat, I'm already overweight." What is the best response by the nurse?
"You may think you are fat, but you look thin to me."
"There are consequences for not eating."
"Explain how you feel when it is time to eat."
"You must eat or you will become very sick."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: "You may think you are fat, but you look thin to me" is dismissive and may invalidate the client's feelings. It is essential to explore the client's emotions rather than providing a judgmental response.
Choice B rationale: "There are consequences for not eating" is confrontational and may increase the client's anxiety. A more therapeutic approach involves exploring the client's feelings and concerns about eating.
Choice C rationale: "Explain how you feel when it is time to eat" is an open-ended and non-judgmental response. It encourages the client to express her emotions, providing valuable information for further assessment and care planning.
Choice D rationale: "You must eat or you will become very sick" is directive and may increase resistance. It is essential to explore the client's feelings and collaborate on a plan rather than issuing directives.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Administering an antianxiolytic medication may be appropriate, but addressing the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance is the priority.
Choice B rationale: Inserting a fecal management tube is not the first action to take in response to hemoccult positive liquid stools; addressing fluid balance is more urgent.
Choice C rationale: Inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter is the priority to address the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance and provide necessary hydration and medications.
Choice D rationale: Crushing pills and placing them in applesauce may be considered, but the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance needs prompt attention first.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The nurse's response regarding watery eyes and diarrhea is not directly related to the client's concern about the medication's effect on blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale: This response minimizes the potential side effects, which is not accurate. Second-generation antipsychotics are associated with metabolic side effects, including changes in blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Offering an education sheet is helpful but does not directly address the client's specific concerns about the medication's impact on blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale: This response acknowledges the client's concern, provides information about the general tolerability of the medication, and invites the client to share more about their specific worries. It encourages open communication and allows the nurse to address the client's concerns more effectively.
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