A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the nurse that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
I can hear that your sister's comments are overwhelming you.
Do you think it is possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
Besides your sister's comments, what in your life is troubling you?
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Ignoring comments about the sister's lack of medical education may not address the client's feelings and concerns. It is essential to explore the client's emotions.
Choice B rationale: Acknowledging that the sister's comments are overwhelming is supportive but may not actively address the client's self-perception.
Choice C rationale: Asking if the client thinks she might be a hypochondriac could be interpreted as judgmental and may not promote an open discussion about the client's concerns.
Choice D rationale: Asking about what is troubling the client, besides her sister's comments, encourages the client to express her feelings and provides an opportunity for the nurse to understand the client's perspective and concerns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Disrupted sleep is a common symptom of postpartum depression, and clients may experience difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep.
Choice B rationale: Grandiosity is more indicative of bipolar disorder (mania) rather than postpartum depression.
Choice C rationale: Poor concentration is a common cognitive symptom associated with postpartum depression.
Choice D rationale: Compulsive behavior is not typically associated with postpartum depression.
Choice E rationale: Sadness is a hallmark symptom of depression, including postpartum depression.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Gastric lavage may be considered, but the priority is to address respiratory depression. Naloxone administration is more immediate.
Choice B rationale: Renal dialysis is not indicated for the overdose of methadone and benzodiazepines. Addressing respiratory depression is the priority.
Choice C rationale: Nebulizing with albuterol is not the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression due to drug overdose. Naloxone administration is more critical. Choice D rationale: Administration of naloxone is the priority for this client with respiratory depression due to the potential opioid overdose (methadone). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
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