A 24-year-old single woman presents to the PMHNP for a psychiatric evaluation after discharge from an inpatient psychiatric unit, where she had been admitted for a suicide attempt. She cut her wrists after her boyfriend of one month broke up with her. She reports a long history of self-mutilation, impulsiveness, and no relationship lasting longer than three months. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Histrionic personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder
Dependent personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Histrionic personality disorder involves attention-seeking behavior and excessive emotionality. While unstable relationships may occur, self-harm and impulsivity are not core features.
Choice B reason: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy. It does not typically involve self-mutilation or intense fear of abandonment.
Choice C reason: Dependent personality disorder involves excessive reliance on others and difficulty making decisions independently. While fear of abandonment is present, impulsivity and self-harm are not hallmark features.
Choice D reason: Borderline personality disorder is marked by emotional instability, impulsivity, intense fear of abandonment, and recurrent self-harming behaviors. The client’s history of unstable relationships, suicide attempt, and self-mutilation strongly align with this diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pharmacokinetics describes how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes a drug—essentially what the body does to the drug. Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug’s effects on the body, including its mechanism of action, receptor interactions, and therapeutic effects.
Choice B reason: This statement reverses the definitions and is therefore incorrect. It misrepresents the foundational concepts of pharmacology.
Choice C reason: While this statement accurately describes pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, it is more detailed than necessary and does not directly contrast the two concepts as clearly as choice A does.
Choice D reason: This statement confuses the definitions. Drug receptors and enzymes are part of pharmacodynamics, not pharmacokinetics. The absorption and metabolism processes belong to pharmacokinetics.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and is involved in learning, memory, and neuroplasticity. While dysregulation of glutamate has been implicated in mood disorders, it is not produced in the raphe nuclei and is not the primary neurotransmitter associated with depression, anxiety, or OCD.
Choice B reason: Acetylcholine plays a role in attention, learning, and memory. It is not synthesized in the raphe nuclei and is more commonly associated with neurodegenerative disorders like Alzheimer’s disease rather than mood or anxiety disorders.
Choice C reason: Serotonin is synthesized in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem and is critically involved in mood regulation, anxiety control, and obsessive-compulsive behaviors. A deficiency in serotonin transmission has been strongly linked to depression, anxiety disorders, and OCD. This neurotransmitter is the target of many antidepressants, including SSRIs, which aim to increase its availability in the synaptic cleft.
Choice D reason: Norepinephrine is involved in arousal, alertness, and the stress response. Although it plays a role in mood disorders, it is primarily produced in the locus coeruleus, not the raphe nuclei. Its deficiency is more closely associated with fatigue and concentration issues in depression rather than obsessive-compulsive symptoms.
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