A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?
Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
Contraction stress test (CST)
Internal fetal monitoring
Ultrasound for placental location
None of the above
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the amniotic sac to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid, which can be used to assess the fetal lung development. It is usually done in late pregnancy or preterm labor, not in the second trimester.
Choice B reason: Contraction stress test (CST) is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a test that involves stimulating uterine contractions, either by nipple stimulation or oxytocin infusion, to evaluate the fetal heart rate response. It is used to assess fetal well-being and placental function, not to diagnose the cause of bleeding.
Choice C reason: Internal fetal monitoring is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a method of measuring the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions using electrodes or catheters that are inserted through the cervix and attached to the fetal scalp or the amniotic sac. It is usually done during labor, not in the second trimester.
Choice D reason: Ultrasound for placental location is an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a test that uses sound waves to create an image of the uterus, the placenta, and the fetus. It can help to determine the position and attachment of the placenta, which can be the cause of bleeding if it is low-lying or covering the cervix (placenta previa).
Choice E reason: None of the above is not a correct answer. There is one expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, which is ultrasound for placental location.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A total placenta previa is when the placenta completely covers the internal os, blocking the baby's exit from the uterus.
Choice B reason: A marginal placenta previa is when the placental edge just reaches the internal os, but does not cover it. This is the most common type of placenta previa and usually resolves on its own as the pregnancy progresses.
Choice C reason: A complete placenta previa is when the placenta partially covers the internal os, reducing the space for the baby to pass through.
Choice D reason: A partial placenta previa is when the placenta partially covers the internal os, reducing the space for the baby to pass through. This is similar to a complete placenta previa, but less severe.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
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