A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?
Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
Contraction stress test (CST)
Internal fetal monitoring
Ultrasound for placental location
None of the above
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the amniotic sac to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid, which can be used to assess the fetal lung development. It is usually done in late pregnancy or preterm labor, not in the second trimester.
Choice B reason: Contraction stress test (CST) is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a test that involves stimulating uterine contractions, either by nipple stimulation or oxytocin infusion, to evaluate the fetal heart rate response. It is used to assess fetal well-being and placental function, not to diagnose the cause of bleeding.
Choice C reason: Internal fetal monitoring is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a method of measuring the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions using electrodes or catheters that are inserted through the cervix and attached to the fetal scalp or the amniotic sac. It is usually done during labor, not in the second trimester.
Choice D reason: Ultrasound for placental location is an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a test that uses sound waves to create an image of the uterus, the placenta, and the fetus. It can help to determine the position and attachment of the placenta, which can be the cause of bleeding if it is low-lying or covering the cervix (placenta previa).
Choice E reason: None of the above is not a correct answer. There is one expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, which is ultrasound for placental location.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Partial abruptio placentae is not the correct answer, as it does not always require delivery by cesarean section. Partial abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta partially separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born. This can cause bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. Depending on the severity of the condition, the gestational age, and the fetal status, the delivery may be vaginal or cesarean.
Choice B reason: Ectopic pregnancy is not the correct answer, as it does not require delivery by cesarean section. Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. This can cause bleeding, pain, and rupture of the tube. Ectopic pregnancy is not viable and needs to be removed surgically or treated with medication. It cannot result in a live birth².
Choice C reason: Eclampsia is not the correct answer, as it does not always require delivery by cesarean section. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia, a condition where the pregnant woman develops high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Eclampsia can cause seizures, coma, and death for the mother and the baby. The only cure for eclampsia is delivery of the baby, which may be vaginal or cesarean depending on the maternal and fetal condition.
Choice D reason: Total placenta previa is the correct answer, as it always requires delivery by cesarean section. Total placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix, the opening of the uterus. This can cause painless bleeding, preterm labor, and fetal distress. Vaginal delivery is impossible and dangerous, as it can cause severe bleeding and damage to the placenta and the baby. Cesarean section is the only safe way to deliver the baby.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination is not the best response, as it may delay the detection and treatment of any potential problems. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and offer her the option to reschedule or proceed with the examination.
Choice B reason: Asking the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection is a good way to assess the woman's condition and provide education, but it is not the initial response. The nurse should first inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and then ask her about her symptoms.
Choice C reason: Reassuring the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination is not true, as vaginal creams can alter the pH of the vaginal environment and affect the accuracy of the Pap test. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and explain the importance of avoiding vaginal creams, douches, or intercourse for 48 hours before the test.
Choice D reason: Informing the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Pap test for which she is scheduled is the best response, as it educates the woman about the purpose and procedure of the Pap test and allows her to make an informed decision about whether to reschedule or proceed with the examination. The nurse should also explain the risks and benefits of both options and respect the woman's choice.
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