A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?

Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity

Contraction stress test (CST)

Internal fetal monitoring

Ultrasound for placental location

None of the above

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the amniotic sac to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid, which can be used to assess the fetal lung development. It is usually done in late pregnancy or preterm labor, not in the second trimester.

Choice B reason: Contraction stress test (CST) is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a test that involves stimulating uterine contractions, either by nipple stimulation or oxytocin infusion, to evaluate the fetal heart rate response. It is used to assess fetal well-being and placental function, not to diagnose the cause of bleeding.

Choice C reason: Internal fetal monitoring is not an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a method of measuring the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions using electrodes or catheters that are inserted through the cervix and attached to the fetal scalp or the amniotic sac. It is usually done during labor, not in the second trimester.

Choice D reason: Ultrasound for placental location is an expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. It is a test that uses sound waves to create an image of the uterus, the placenta, and the fetus. It can help to determine the position and attachment of the placenta, which can be the cause of bleeding if it is low-lying or covering the cervix (placenta previa).

Choice E reason: None of the above is not a correct answer. There is one expected diagnostic procedure for a pregnant woman with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, which is ultrasound for placental location.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: A blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg is not a concerning finding for preeclampsia. The diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia include a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hours apart, or a BP of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on one occasion.

Choice B reason: Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day is not a concerning finding for preeclampsia. Edema is a common symptom of pregnancy and can be influenced by factors such as hydration, activity, and posture. Edema is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks is not a concerning finding for preeclampsia. The recommended weight gain for a normal-weight woman during pregnancy is 11.5 to 16 kg, with an average of 0.4 kg per week in the second and third trimesters.

Choice D reason: A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine is a concerning finding for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is one of the hallmark signs of preeclampsia and indicates renal impairment. A dipstick value of 3+ corresponds to a protein concentration of 300 mg/dL or higher, which is considered severe.

A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a viral sexually transmitted infection that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is characterized by a progressive decline of the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections and cancers. It does not have recurrent episodes, but rather a chronic and incurable course.

Choice B reason: Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 is a viral sexually transmitted infection that causes genital herpes. It is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes of painful blisters and ulcers in the genital area. The virus remains latent in the nerve cells and can reactivate periodically or in response to triggers such as stress, illness, or menstruation.

Choice C reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral sexually transmitted infection that causes genital warts and cervical cancer. It is characterized by a persistent infection that may or may not produce symptoms. It does not have recurrent episodes, but rather a variable and unpredictable course.

Choice D reason: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a viral sexually transmitted infection that causes mild or asymptomatic infections in healthy adults. It is characterized by a latent infection that can reactivate in immunocompromised individuals, causing serious complications such as retinitis, pneumonia, or encephalitis. It does not have recurrent episodes, but rather a dormant and opportunistic course.

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A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should concern her nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Examples of sexual risk behaviors associated with exposure to a sexually transmitted infection (STI) include: (Select all that apply.)

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A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is more commonly known as:

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