What is the main reason why a woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy?

She has used contraceptives for an extended time.

Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process.

Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.

Personal risk behaviors influence fertility.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is not the main reason, as the use of contraceptives for an extended time does not necessarily affect the fertility of a woman. Most contraceptives are reversible and do not cause permanent damage to the reproductive system. However, some contraceptives may take longer to wear off than others, and some may have side effects that can interfere with ovulation or implantation.

Choice B reason: This is the main reason, as the aging process can affect the ovaries and the quality and quantity of the eggs. As a woman ages, her ovarian reserve (the number of eggs in the ovaries) declines, and the eggs become more prone to chromosomal abnormalities. This can reduce the chances of conception and increase the risk of miscarriage or birth defects.

Choice C reason: This is not the main reason, as prepregnancy medical attention is not a prerequisite for achieving pregnancy. However, prepregnancy medical attention can be beneficial for a woman who is older than 35 years, as it can help identify and manage any existing or potential health problems that may affect the pregnancy, such as diabetes, hypertension, or thyroid disorders.

Choice D reason: This is not the main reason, as personal risk behaviors are not specific to a woman who is older than 35 years. Personal risk behaviors are factors that can negatively affect the fertility of any woman, regardless of age. Some examples of personal risk behaviors are smoking, drinking, using drugs, having multiple sexual partners, or having sexually transmitted infections.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy. They are a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.

Choice B reason: Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. It can be detected as early as 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.

Choice C reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, as it indicates the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or blood. However, it is not a definitive sign, as other conditions can cause elevated hCG levels.

Choice D reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, which usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.

A. It sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. B. It is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. C. It is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. D. It is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured. E. It is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Vibroacoustic stimulation is a technique that uses sound to stimulate the fetus and elicit a response. It is sometimes used in conjunction with the nonstress test (NST), not the CST. The NST measures the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement, while the CST measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions.

Choice B reason: A negative CST result means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. Late decelerations are decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends. They indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. A negative CST result is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor².

Choice C reason: The CST is not an invasive test, as it does not involve inserting any instruments or devices into the uterus or the fetus. However, it does require stimulating contractions, either by giving the pregnant woman oxytocin (a hormone that causes uterine contractions) or by having her rub her nipples (which also releases oxytocin). The contractions can be uncomfortable and may trigger preterm labor in some cases.

Choice D reason: The CST is not more effective than the NST if the membranes have already been ruptured. In fact, the CST is contraindicated (not recommended) in women who have ruptured membranes, as it can increase the risk of infection and bleeding. The NST is a safer and simpler alternative to the CST, as it does not require stimulating contractions. However, the NST may not be as reliable as the CST in detecting fetal compromise.

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What is the main reason why a woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

What should a nurse know about the contraction stress test (CST) when providing care for the antepartum woman?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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