A 28-year-old man with a fractured humerus calls the nurse into his room. Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient to be tachycardic, pale, and confused. The nurse suspects the patient may be experiencing which of the following complications?

Compartment syndrome

Deep vein thrombosis

Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

Fat embolism

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Compartment syndrome involves increased pressure within a muscle compartment, causing pain, swelling, and neurovascular compromise. It typically presents with localized symptoms like severe pain and paresthesia, not systemic signs like tachycardia, pallor, or confusion. These findings in a humerus fracture suggest a broader complication, making this less likely.

Choice B reason: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) causes localized swelling, pain, and redness, primarily in the lower limbs. Systemic symptoms like tachycardia or confusion are rare unless DVT progresses to pulmonary embolism. A humerus fracture is less associated with DVT, and the patient’s symptoms point to a more acute, systemic issue.

Choice C reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, often triggered by sepsis or trauma. While possible in severe trauma, it typically presents with bleeding or bruising, not primarily tachycardia, pallor, and confusion. These symptoms align more closely with fat embolism in the context of a long bone fracture.

Choice D reason: Fat embolism syndrome, common in long bone fractures like the humerus, occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream, obstructing pulmonary or cerebral vessels. This causes tachycardia, pallor (from hypoxia), and confusion (from cerebral hypoxia). These systemic symptoms match the patient’s presentation, making fat embolism the most likely complication requiring urgent intervention.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Ankylosis, fusion of spinal joints, is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, not osteoporosis. Osteoporosis causes bone density loss, leading to fractures and deformities like kyphosis, not joint fusion. Expecting ankylosis misaligns assessment, potentially overlooking osteoporosis-related vertebral compression fractures critical for managing mobility and pain in older adults.

Choice B reason: Kyphosis, an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, is common in osteoporosis due to vertebral compression fractures from weakened bones. These fractures collapse anteriorly, causing a hunchback appearance, affecting posture and balance. Recognizing kyphosis guides interventions like bracing or bisphosphonates to prevent further fractures and improve quality of life.

Choice C reason: Scoliosis, lateral spine curvature, is typically congenital or idiopathic, not directly caused by osteoporosis. While osteoporosis may exacerbate existing scoliosis through fractures, it’s not a primary deformity. Expecting scoliosis risks misdiagnosis, diverting focus from osteoporosis-related kyphosis and its management, like calcium supplementation or physical therapy.

Choice D reason: Lordosis, exaggerated lumbar curvature, is not typical in osteoporosis. Osteoporosis primarily affects thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis from compression fractures. Lordosis may occur in other conditions like muscular imbalances, but expecting it in osteoporosis misguides assessment, delaying interventions for fracture prevention and spinal stability in older adults.

A. The weights are equal on each side. B. The ropes are securely attached to the pins. C. The weights rest against the foot of the bed. D. The ropes are in the center of the wheel grooves.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Equal weights on each side are appropriate in skeletal traction, ensuring balanced force to maintain bone alignment. This finding supports the traction’s purpose of stabilizing the fracture without causing uneven stress on the bone or soft tissues. No correction is needed, as this is a correct setup.

Choice B reason: Securely attached ropes to pins are essential in skeletal traction to transmit consistent force to the bone. Loose attachments could disrupt alignment or cause pin site complications like infection. This finding is correct and does not require correction, as it ensures effective traction and patient safety.

Choice C reason: Weights resting against the bed negate the traction’s pulling force, failing to maintain bone alignment. Weights must hang freely to apply continuous tension, counteracting muscle spasms and stabilizing the fracture. This finding requires correction to restore effective traction and prevent malunion or delayed healing.

Choice D reason: Ropes centered in wheel grooves ensure smooth movement and consistent traction force without fraying or misalignment. This is a correct setup, as misaligned ropes could reduce traction effectiveness or cause mechanical issues. No correction is needed, as this supports proper traction mechanics.

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A 28-year-old man with a fractured humerus calls the nurse into his room. Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient to be tachycardic, pale, and confused. The nurse suspects the patient may be experiencing which of the following complications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing an older adult client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following spinal deformities should the nurse expect to find in the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is in skeletal traction. The nurse should correct which of the following findings?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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