A 3-year-old is admitted for repair of a fractured femur and is placed in Bryant's traction. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the traction is working properly?
The buttocks are 15° off the bed.
The child no longer complains of pain.
The pins are secured within the pulley.
The legs are suspended in the traction
The Correct Answer is D
A. In this type of traction, the child’s buttocks should be elevated slightly off the bed to maintain the correct alignment and reduce pressure on the skin. However, a 15° angle may not be specifically necessary for indicating proper traction; what matters more is that the child is positioned correctly and comfortably.
B. While a reduction in pain can indicate that the traction is effective and that the fracture is stabilized, pain management is also influenced by medication and other factors. Therefore, while this is a positive finding, it is not the most definitive indicator of proper traction.
C. However, while it is essential that the pins are secure, the effectiveness of traction is more directly related to the positioning and suspension of the legs rather than just the pin security alone.
D. In Bryant's traction, the legs should be suspended to ensure proper alignment and immobilization of the fractured femur. The traction's effectiveness is best assessed by observing that the legs are correctly suspended and aligned, allowing for the necessary rest and healing of the bone.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Kidney disease is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension. Conditions such as chronic kidney disease or renal artery stenosis can lead to increased blood pressure due to fluid retention or increased renin production.
B. While pain can cause temporary increases in blood pressure due to the body's stress response, it is not an identifiable cause of secondary hypertension. Pain-related hypertension is usually acute and resolves once the pain is managed, rather than being a chronic condition.
C. Glaucoma is an eye condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, but it is not a cause of hypertension. Although systemic hypertension can affect eye health, glaucoma itself does not cause secondary hypertension. Therefore, this is not an identifiable cause.
D. Anemia does not directly cause secondary hypertension. While severe anemia can sometimes result in compensatory mechanisms that might elevate blood pressure, it is not a recognized or direct cause of secondary hypertension. Thus, it is not a primary concern in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Edema (swelling due to fluid accumulation) is not a primary manifestation of scabies. While secondary infections can lead to localized swelling, edema is not characteristic of scabies itself.
B. Maceration refers to the softening and breaking down of skin resulting from prolonged exposure to moisture. While it can occur if the skin is scratched and becomes wet, it is not a primary clinical manifestation of scabies.
C. Redness (erythema) can occur due to scratching and irritation, but it is not the defining feature of scabies. While some redness may be present, it is not the primary symptom that indicates scabies infestation.
D. The primary clinical manifestation of scabies is intense pruritus (itching), which is often worse at night. The itching is a result of an allergic reaction to the mites and their waste products, leading to discomfort and a strong urge to scratch.
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