A client is admitted to the hospital with a long history of hypertension. The nurse should assess the client for which identifiable cause of secondary hypertension?

Anemia

Glaucoma

Kidney disease

Cataracts

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Anemia itself is not typically a direct cause of secondary hypertension. While severe anemia can sometimes lead to changes in blood pressure, it is not recognized as a common or identifiable cause of secondary hypertension. Therefore, this option is not the best answer.
B.   Glaucoma primarily affects eye health and is characterized by increased intraocular pressure. While there is some association between systemic hypertension and glaucoma, glaucoma is not considered a direct cause of secondary hypertension. It’s more of a complication that can occur in patients with high blood pressure rather than a cause of it.
C.   Kidney disease is one of the most common and significant causes of secondary hypertension. Conditions such as chronic kidney disease or renal artery stenosis can lead to increased blood pressure due to fluid retention and changes in hormonal regulation (like the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system). Therefore, this option is a highly identifiable cause of secondary hypertension.
D.   Cataracts involve the clouding of the lens of the eye and are typically related to aging and other factors such as diabetes. While cataracts can be associated with systemic diseases like diabetes and hypertension, they are not considered a direct cause of secondary hypertension.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. This is a classic manifestation of acute pharyngitis, which is often caused by viral or bacterial infections. A red or inflamed throat (erythema) and fever are common symptoms due to the inflammatory response to infection. This choice aligns well with the expected findings in a patient with acute pharyngitis.
B. This description is more indicative of sinusitis rather than acute pharyngitis. While a person with acute pharyngitis may have some upper respiratory symptoms, significant sinus pain and purulent nasal discharge are not typical manifestations of pharyngitis itself.
C. Foul-smelling breath (halitosis) can occur in cases of certain infections, but it’s more characteristic of conditions such as tonsillitis or abscesses in the throat rather than typical acute pharyngitis. Noisy respirations may suggest airway obstruction or other complications that are not primary symptoms of pharyngitis.
D. A weak cough and high-pitched noise (stridor) during respiration are more indicative of upper airway obstruction or croup rather than acute pharyngitis. These symptoms suggest a more severe respiratory condition that involves airway narrowing.

A. "This medication can cause insomnia." B. "Treatment with this medication will last for 1 month. C. "It is best to take the medication with meals." D. "Urine and other secretions might turn orange."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Insomnia is not a common side effect of rifampin. While individual responses to medications can vary, the typical side effects of rifampin do not generally include sleep disturbances. More common side effects include gastrointestinal upset, rash, and liver enzyme changes.
B. The treatment duration for rifampin in the context of active tuberculosis is typically much longer than 1 month. Standard therapy often lasts for at least 6 months and may vary depending on the specific treatment regimen and patient response.
C. Rifampin is generally recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, either 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals, to enhance absorption. Taking it with food may reduce its effectiveness. This information is crucial for ensuring the medication works optimally.
D. One of the notable side effects of rifampin is that it can cause urine, sweat, tears, and other bodily secretions to turn a reddish-orange color. This is harmless but important for the patient to be aware of, as it can cause concern or confusion regarding potential blood in urine or other secretions.

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A client is admitted to the hospital with a long history of hypertension. The nurse should assess the client for which identifiable cause of secondary hypertension?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is diagnosed with acute pharyngitis. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see in this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following information should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

In providing care to a patient admitted with an acute asthma exacerbation, the nurse prepares which "rescue" medication for administration first?

A school-age child is admitted to the ER with status asthmaticus. The parent states the child is taking montelukast, albuterol, and fluticasone. Which is the most important piece of information that the nurse needs to ask the parent to best treat the child?

Which physical assessment(s) would be pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is planning a diet for a client who is iron deficient. Which of the following foods high in iron should the nurse include in the plan?

Which interventions does the nurse implement when providing care for a patient who is admitted for the treatment of active tuberculosis? (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has anemia due to excess blood loss following surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

The physician orders iron sucrose 200 mg IV. The pharmacy sends the medication in a 100 mL bag of normal saline with the directions to infuse the IV over 15 minutes. The nurse sets the IV Infusion pump to mL/hr.

A client is admitted to the hospital for medical treatment of pneumonia. What diagnostic test would the nurse examine to help the health care provider to determine the next step in planning care?