A nurse is evaluating a child during a well exam. The nurse discovers that one leg is shorter than the other. Which is most likely the cause of the difference in leg length?
Fracture of the epiphyseal plate.
Scoliosis.
Comminuted clavicle fracture.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A fracture involving the epiphyseal plate (growth plate) can lead to differential growth in the affected limb. If a fracture occurs before the growth plate has closed, it can potentially result in the shorter leg as the growth in that limb may be inhibited compared to the unaffected leg.
B. While scoliosis can lead to asymmetrical body positioning and potentially cause a perception of leg length discrepancy, it does not typically cause a true difference in bone length. Instead, scoliosis affects the spine's curvature and may alter posture, but it’s not a direct cause of one leg being shorter than the
other.
C. A comminuted clavicle fracture primarily affects the shoulder and does not impact leg length. It involves the upper limb and does not contribute to any differences in the lengths of the legs, making this option irrelevant to the observed leg length discrepancy.
D. JIA can lead to joint inflammation and may affect limb growth if it causes significant damage to the joints. However, while it can potentially cause some discrepancies in limb length due to joint issues, it is less directly associated with one leg being shorter than the other compared to an epiphyseal plate fracture.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Ondansetron is not indicated for treating diarrhea. While nausea can accompany diarrhea, ondansetron specifically targets nausea and vomiting rather than the underlying causes of diarrhea.
B. Ondansetron is primarily used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting, particularly those associated with chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and postoperative recovery. If a patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting, ondansetron would be the appropriate medication to administer.
C. Ondansetron is not indicated for managing pain. Incisional pain is typically treated with analgesics, not antiemetics. While postoperative patients may experience nausea, ondansetron would not be used solely for pain relief.
D. Paralytic ileus is a condition characterized by the lack of movement in the intestines, leading to a blockage. While nausea and vomiting can occur in this condition, ondansetron is not a treatment for the underlying issue of ileus. The focus would be on managing the ileus and any complications that arise.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) is not a typical sign of osteomyelitis. Instead, infections often cause tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to the body's response to fever and inflammation. Therefore, this finding would not indicate osteomyelitis.
B. Chills can be a sign of infection, including osteomyelitis. They often occur as a result of the body trying to regulate temperature in response to fever. The presence of chills would raise suspicion of an underlying infection.
C. An elevated temperature, particularly above normal (typically defined as over 100.4 degrees F), is a classic sign of infection. A temperature of 102 degrees F suggests that the body is fighting an infection, which could indicate osteomyelitis.
D. Difficulty breathing is not a direct symptom of osteomyelitis and may indicate other conditions such as respiratory issues or complications unrelated to the shoulder infection. Therefore, this finding is not typically associated with osteomyelitis.
E. Increased pain in the affected area, especially with movement, can indicate inflammation or infection. In the case of osteomyelitis, localized pain at the site of infection is a common symptom.
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