Which of the following medications exerts its effects by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, is typically used to treat hypertension or congestive heart failure, and has dry cough as a common side effect?
Telmisartan (Micardis)
Lisinopril (Zestril)
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Furosemide (Lasix)
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which prevents angiotensin II from binding to its receptors but does not inhibit its formation. ARBs are less likely to cause a dry cough because they do not increase bradykinin levels.
Choice B reason: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. A common side effect is a persistent dry cough due to increased bradykinin levels, making it the correct answer.
Choice C reason: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle to lower blood pressure. It does not affect the renin-angiotensin system and is not associated with dry cough.
Choice D reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. It is used to manage fluid overload in heart failure and hypertension but does not act on the renin-angiotensin system or cause dry cough.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Disorganized speech in early childhood is not specific to schizophrenia and may be seen in developmental disorders such as autism spectrum disorder or language delay. It is not a reliable early indicator of schizophrenia.
Choice B reason: Childhood-onset schizophrenia is associated with poorer outcomes compared to adult-onset due to earlier disruption of cognitive and social development. Early intervention may help but does not necessarily lead to better prognosis.
Choice C reason: Childhood-onset schizophrenia shares many features with adult-onset, including a gradual onset and the presence of negative symptoms such as social withdrawal, flat affect, and cognitive deficits. These symptoms often precede psychotic features and are more prominent in early-onset cases.
Choice D reason: Schizophrenia is rare in children, and other diagnoses such as mood disorders, autism spectrum disorder, or trauma-related conditions should be considered first. It should not be the initial diagnosis without thorough evaluation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Trichomonas is a sexually transmitted infection that typically causes vaginal discharge, itching, and irritation. It does not cause uterine tenderness or systemic symptoms like fever and flu-like illness in the postpartum period.
Choice B reason: A urinary tract infection may cause fever and abdominal discomfort, but it does not typically result in a tender, subinvoluted uterus or foul-smelling lochia. The symptoms described are more consistent with a uterine infection.
Choice C reason: Endometriosis is a chronic condition involving ectopic endometrial tissue, causing pelvic pain and infertility. It is not an acute postpartum infection and does not present with fever or foul-smelling discharge.
Choice D reason: Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, commonly occurring postpartum, especially after prolonged labor or cesarean delivery. Symptoms include uterine tenderness, fever, subinvolution, and malodorous lochia. This diagnosis best fits the clinical presentation.
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