A 45-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, fever, and nausea. She reports that the pain started suddenly and has progressively worsened. The healthcare provider suspects peritonitis and orders immediate interventions.
Physical examination
On examination, the patient has a distended abdomen, guarding, and rebound tenderness.
Her vital signs are as follows:
Temperature 102.4°F (39.1°C), Heart rate 120 bpm, Blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, and Respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute.
Which of the following complications is the nurse's highest priority to monitor for in this patient?
Intestinal obstruction
Hypovolemic shock
Electrolyte imbalance
Sepsis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Intestinal obstruction: While peritonitis can lead to intestinal obstruction, it is not the most immediate life-threatening complication compared to hypovolemic shock or sepsis.
B. Hypovolemic shock: This is a critical condition that can occur due to severe fluid loss, which might be a concern in peritonitis due to fluid shifts into the abdominal cavity. However, the patient’s signs of systemic infection (fever, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure) suggest that sepsis is a more imminent threat.
C. Electrolyte imbalance: Electrolyte imbalances are possible due to fluid loss, but they would be secondary to the more urgent concern of hypovolemic shock.
D. Sepsis: Sepsis is the highest priority due to the patient’s vital signs and symptoms indicating a systemic infection. Early recognition and treatment of sepsis are crucial to prevent organ failure and other severe complications.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administer intravenous antibiotics and observe the patient for 24 hours: IV antibiotics may be given preoperatively, but observation without surgery is not the standard treatment for confirmed appendicitis due to the risk of rupture.
B. Provide the patient with oral pain medications and discharge them with a follow-up appointment: Oral pain medications are not appropriate as the patient needs surgical intervention. Discharging the patient without surgery could result in life-threatening complications.
C. Recommend a liquid diet and bed rest to reduce inflammation: A liquid diet and bed rest will not address the underlying issue of appendicitis, which requires surgical removal of the inflamed appendix.
D. Prepare the patient for an appendectomy. The standard treatment for acute appendicitis is an appendectomy. Delaying surgery can lead to complications such as perforation, peritonitis, or abscess formation. This is the most appropriate intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The gallbladder became infected by a virus and needs to be removed: Gallstones are not caused by a viral infection.
B. The gallbladder has become inflamed due to a build-up of gallstones that are blocking the common bile duct: While gallstones can obstruct the bile duct, leading to inflammation, the best explanation relates to cholesterol as the main cause of stone formation.
C. The gallbladder has become blocked by a tumor and is no longer working: Tumors are not a common cause of gallstones or cholecystitis.
D. The gallbladder has become inflamed due to the cholesterol in the gallstones. Gallstones are typically formed from cholesterol and bile salts. When there is too much cholesterol in the bile, it can form stones that may lead to inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis).
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