A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of severe headaches, visual disturbances, and joint pain. Upon further investigation, he is diagnosed with hyperpituitarism. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of his symptoms?

Adrenal hyperplasia

Pituitary adenoma

Thyroid carcinoma

Hypothalamic dysfunction

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A Reason:

Adrenal hyperplasia involves the enlargement of the adrenal glands, which can lead to an overproduction of adrenal hormones. However, it does not directly cause hyperpituitarism. Hyperpituitarism is related to the overactivity of the pituitary gland, not the adrenal glands.

Choice B Reason:

Pituitary adenoma is the most common cause of hyperpituitarism. These benign tumors in the pituitary gland lead to the overproduction of one or more pituitary hormones, causing symptoms such as severe headaches, visual disturbances, and joint pain. The pituitary gland’s overactivity due to the adenoma results in the excessive release of hormones, which can affect various bodily functions.

Choice C Reason:

Thyroid carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland While it can cause hormonal imbalances, it does not typically lead to hyperpituitarism. The symptoms described are more consistent with a pituitary-related issue rather than a thyroid condition.

Choice D Reason:

Hypothalamic dysfunction can affect the pituitary gland’s function since the hypothalamus regulates pituitary hormone release. However, it is less likely to be the primary cause of hyperpituitarism compared to a pituitary adenoma. The direct overproduction of hormones by the pituitary gland is more commonly due to an adenoma.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Administering intravenous acetazolamide is a critical intervention for acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces the production of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure (IOP) quickly. Reducing IOP is essential to prevent optic nerve damage and preserve vision. Normal IOP ranges from 10 to 21 mmHg, and in acute narrow-angle glaucoma, it can exceed 30 mmHg. Rapid reduction of IOP is crucial to alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.

Choice B Reason:

Applying warm compresses to the affected eye is not an appropriate intervention for acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Warm compresses may provide temporary relief for some eye conditions, but they do not address the underlying issue of elevated intraocular pressure. In fact, warm compresses can potentially increase blood flow to the eye, which might exacerbate the condition.

Choice C Reason:

Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated is generally good advice for overall health, but it is not a prioritized intervention for acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Hydration does not directly impact intraocular pressure or alleviate the acute symptoms of glaucoma. The primary focus should be on reducing IOP to prevent optic nerve damage.

Choice D Reason:

Administering a mydriatic agent to dilate the pupil is contraindicated in acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Mydriatic agents can worsen the condition by further narrowing the anterior chamber angle, increasing intraocular pressure, and potentially causing more damage to the optic nerve. It is crucial to avoid pupil dilation in this scenario.

A. Advise the patient to increase their screen time to exercise their eye muscles. B. Encourage the patient to quit smoking to slow the progression of the disease. C. Suggest the patient avoid all physical activities to prevent further eye damage. D. Inform the patient to reduce their water intake to prevent fluid accumulation in the eyes.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Advising the patient to increase their screen time to exercise their eye muscles is not appropriate for managing macular degeneration. Increased screen time can cause eye strain and does not benefit the condition. Instead, patients should be encouraged to engage in activities that do not exacerbate eye strain.

Choice B Reason:

Encouraging the patient to quit smoking is a crucial intervention for managing macular degeneration. Smoking is a significant risk factor for the progression of macular degeneration. Quitting smoking can help slow the progression of the disease and improve overall eye health. This intervention addresses a modifiable risk factor and can have a positive impact on the patient’s condition.

Choice C Reason:

Suggesting the patient avoid all physical activities to prevent further eye damage is not necessary for managing macular degeneration. Physical activity is important for overall health and does not directly impact the progression of macular degeneration. Patients should be encouraged to maintain a healthy lifestyle, including regular physical activity.

Choice D Reason:

Informing the patient to reduce their water intake to prevent fluid accumulation in the eyes is not relevant for managing macular degeneration. Adequate hydration is important for overall health, and there is no evidence to suggest that reducing water intake will benefit patients with macular degeneration. This advice could potentially lead to dehydration and other health issues.

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A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of severe headaches, visual disturbances, and joint pain. Upon further investigation, he is diagnosed with hyperpituitarism. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of his symptoms?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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