A patient presents with a thyroid storm. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to initially manage this condition?
Administer propranolol intravenously.
Administer dextrose 50% intravenously.
Administer levothyroxine orally.
Administer insulin to control hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Administering propranolol intravenously is the most appropriate initial intervention for managing a thyroid storm. Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia. Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, helps control these symptoms by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Additionally, propranolol inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, the more active form of thyroid hormone, thereby reducing the overall thyroid hormone activity. This makes it a critical first step in stabilizing the patient.
Choice B Reason:
Administering dextrose 50% intravenously is not the most appropriate initial intervention for thyroid storm. Dextrose 50% is typically used to treat severe hypoglycemia by rapidly increasing blood glucose levels. While maintaining adequate glucose levels is important, it does not address the primary issue of excessive thyroid hormone activity in thyroid storm.
Choice C Reason:
Administering levothyroxine orally is inappropriate in the context of thyroid storm. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of T4 used to treat hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Administering it in a thyroid storm would exacerbate the condition by increasing the levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
Choice D Reason:
Administering insulin to control hyperglycemia is not the primary intervention for thyroid storm. While hyperglycemia can occur in thyroid storm due to increased metabolic activity, the immediate priority is to control the excessive thyroid hormone activity. Insulin administration would be secondary to stabilizing the patient’s thyroid function.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Administering intravenous fluids and pain management is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient with sickle cell anemia presenting with severe pain, fever, and dehydration. Sickle cell crises often lead to severe pain due to vaso-occlusion, where sickled red blood cells block blood flow to various parts of the body. Intravenous fluids help to rehydrate the patient and reduce blood viscosity, which can alleviate the vaso-occlusive crisis. Pain management is crucial to provide relief and improve the patient’s comfort. This approach addresses the immediate symptoms and stabilizes the patient.
Choice B Reason:
Applying cold compresses to the painful areas is not recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia. Cold can cause vasoconstriction, which may worsen the vaso-occlusion and increase pain. Instead, warm compresses are often suggested to help dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow.
Choice C Reason:
Administering antibiotics immediately is not the primary intervention unless there is a clear indication of an infection. While fever can be a sign of infection, it can also occur due to the inflammatory response associated with a sickle cell crisis. The priority is to manage pain and dehydration first, and then evaluate the need for antibiotics based on clinical findings.
Choice D Reason:
Encouraging the patient to perform light exercise is not appropriate during an acute sickle cell crisis. Physical activity can increase oxygen demand and exacerbate the pain and vaso-occlusion. Rest and adequate hydration are more suitable to manage the crisis effectively.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated PTH levels, which lead to increased serum calcium levels and decreased serum phosphate levels. The patient’s lab results show low PTH and low serum calcium, which are not consistent with primary hyperparathyroidism.
Choice B Reason:
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, but it typically presents with elevated PTH levels due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. The patient’s low PTH levels make CKD an unlikely diagnosis in this context.
Choice C Reason:
Vitamin D deficiency can lead to low serum calcium levels, but it usually results in elevated PTH levels as the body attempts to compensate for the low calcium. The patient’s low PTH levels do not align with a diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency.
Choice D Reason:
Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by low serum calcium, low PTH levels, and elevated serum phosphate levels. This condition occurs when the parathyroid glands do not produce enough PTH, leading to the observed lab results and symptoms such as tingling, muscle cramps, and fatigue. The patient’s lab results are consistent with hypoparathyroidism.
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