A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing profuse vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and mucous membranes are dry. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Encourage oral intake of water

Administer potassium-sparing diuretic

Restrict fluid intake

Administer IV bolus of normal saline

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Encouraging oral intake may not be effective due to the patient's likely need for more rapid rehydration given his low blood pressure and heart rate.
B. A potassium-sparing diuretic is inappropriate in this situation, as the patient is already experiencing fluid loss and requires rehydration, not diuresis.
C. Restricting fluid intake would be contraindicated as the patient is in a state of dehydration and hypotension.
D. Administering an IV bolus of normal saline is the priority intervention to quickly restore fluid volume and improve blood pressure and hydration status.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and low PaCO2, which is not evident in this scenario where the pH is low and PaCO2 is elevated.
B. The low pH of 7.3 indicates acidemia, and the elevated PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg suggests respiratory acidosis, where the body is retaining carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in acidity.
C. Metabolic acidosis would present with a low pH and a normal or decreased PaCO2, which is not the case here since the PaCO2 is elevated.
D. Metabolic alkalosis would show a high pH and elevated HCO3 levels, which is not consistent with the given ABG results.

A. Conversion of the virus's RNA into DNA B. Having reverse transcriptase enzyme C. Containing only a single strand of genetic material D. Ability to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The conversion of RNA into DNA is a critical step in the HIV lifecycle, but it does not directly lead to opportunistic infections; instead, it allows the virus to integrate into the host’s genome.
B. Having reverse transcriptase enzyme is a characteristic of retroviruses like HIV that facilitates replication, but it does not cause opportunistic infections directly.
C. HIV containing a single strand of genetic material is a feature of its classification as a retrovirus but is not related to the risk of opportunistic infections.
D. The ability of HIV to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes is the key reason for opportunistic infections. CD4 cells are crucial for the immune response, and their depletion leads to immunosuppression, making the client susceptible to infections that would not typically affect an individual with a healthy immune system.

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A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing profuse vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and mucous membranes are dry. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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