A 45-year-old patient has been taking Prednisone daily for 12 weeks to manage severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient's condition has improved, and the healthcare provider decides to discontinue the medication. Which of the following statements best explains why gradually tapering down the Prednisone dose is necessary?
To decrease the cost of medication for the patient
To prevent the risk of acute adrenal insufficiency
To minimize the potential for drug interactions
To reduce the likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis flare-up
The Correct Answer is B
A. To decrease the cost of medication for the patient: While cost may be a consideration in long-term therapy, it is not the primary reason for tapering corticosteroids. The tapering process is necessary to protect the patient’s physiological balance, not driven by cost concerns.
B. To prevent the risk of acute adrenal insufficiency: Long-term prednisone use suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. Abrupt discontinuation can lead to adrenal insufficiency, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by hypotension, fatigue, and electrolyte imbalances. Gradual tapering allows the adrenal glands to resume natural cortisol production.
C. To minimize the potential for drug interactions: Tapering does not reduce drug interactions. Such risks are managed through medication reconciliation and monitoring, not by adjusting steroid taper schedules.
D. To reduce the likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis flare-up: While tapering may reduce flare risk, the primary concern is adrenal suppression. Flare prevention is managed with other disease-modifying agents rather than the tapering schedule alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "All antipsychotic drugs carry an equal risk of causing movement-related side effects.": First-generation antipsychotics like Haloperidol are more likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms due to their potent dopamine D2 receptor blockade. Second-generation antipsychotics carry a lower risk, making this statement inconsistent with clinical evidence.
B. "These side effects happen because this drug blocks dopamine in certain parts of my brain.": Extrapyramidal symptoms are primarily due to dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway, which regulates motor control. Interference in this region leads to tremors, rigidity, and other movement disorders.
C. "Taking other drugs with my Haloperidol can increase the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms.": Concurrent use of medications that also affect dopamine pathways or have sedative effects can increase the likelihood of developing EPS. Drug interactions are a significant factor in overall risk.
D. "Tardive dyskinesia occurs with prolonged use of an antipsychotic drug.": Long-term use of dopamine-blocking agents, especially at high doses, can lead to tardive dyskinesia. This condition involves involuntary movements and may be irreversible, particularly in older adults.
Correct Answer is ["0.075"]
Explanation
Given quantity = 75 mcg (micrograms)
Desired unit = mg (milligrams)
Convert from mcg to mg
1 mg = 1000 mcg
75 mcg / 1000 mcg/mg
= 0.075 mg
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