A 45-year-old patient has been taking Prednisone daily for 12 weeks to manage severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient's condition has improved, and the healthcare provider decides to discontinue the medication. Which of the following statements best explains why gradually tapering down the Prednisone dose is necessary?
To decrease the cost of medication for the patient
To prevent the risk of acute adrenal insufficiency
To minimize the potential for drug interactions
To reduce the likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis flare-up
The Correct Answer is B
A. To decrease the cost of medication for the patient: While cost may be a consideration in long-term therapy, it is not the primary reason for tapering corticosteroids. The tapering process is necessary to protect the patient’s physiological balance, not driven by cost concerns.
B. To prevent the risk of acute adrenal insufficiency: Long-term prednisone use suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. Abrupt discontinuation can lead to adrenal insufficiency, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by hypotension, fatigue, and electrolyte imbalances. Gradual tapering allows the adrenal glands to resume natural cortisol production.
C. To minimize the potential for drug interactions: Tapering does not reduce drug interactions. Such risks are managed through medication reconciliation and monitoring, not by adjusting steroid taper schedules.
D. To reduce the likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis flare-up: While tapering may reduce flare risk, the primary concern is adrenal suppression. Flare prevention is managed with other disease-modifying agents rather than the tapering schedule alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Dry Cough: A dry cough is not typically associated with salicylate toxicity. It is more commonly seen in conditions like ACE inhibitor use, respiratory infections, or asthma, and does not help distinguish salicylate overdose.
B. Xanthopsia (Yellow Vision): This visual disturbance is more classically linked to digoxin toxicity, not salicylates. Patients experiencing digoxin toxicity may report seeing halos or yellow-tinted vision, but this is not seen with aspirin overdose.
C. Moon Facies: This refers to a rounded facial appearance typically caused by chronic corticosteroid use and is a hallmark of Cushingoid features, not salicylate toxicity.
D. Tinnitus: Ringing in the ears (tinnitus) is a classic early symptom of salicylate toxicity. It often precedes more serious effects like metabolic acidosis, hyperventilation, confusion, and even seizures. It serves as an important clinical clue when assessing patients with possible aspirin overdose.
Correct Answer is ["0203"]
Explanation
Given time = 2:03 am
For times between 12:00 am (midnight) and 9:59 am, military time uses a leading zero for the hour.
Hour in traditional time = 2
Military time hour = 02
The minutes remain the same.
Minutes = 03
Military time = 0203
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