A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?
Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG).
Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower.
Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg.
Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a measure of the average pressure within the arteries during one cardiac cycle. It represents the perfusion pressure that drives blood flow to organs and tissues. MAP is calculated using the formula:
MAP = Diastolic blood pressure + 1/3 (Systolic blood pressure - Diastolic blood pressure)
Blood loss, particularly in cases of significant hemorrhage, leads to a decrease in blood volume. When blood volume decreases, there is less circulating blood available to generate pressure within the arterial system. This reduction in blood volume results in decreased MAP.
Therefore, in the case of massive blood loss after trauma, the student can correlate it with a lower blood volume, which in turn leads to a lower MAP. The decrease in blood volume reduces the perfusion pressure, compromising organ and tissue perfusion
A. It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP in (option A) is incorrect because: While vasoconstriction can occur as a compensatory mechanism to maintain blood pressure, it does not necessarily lead to an increased MAP in the context of significant blood loss.
C. It raises cardiac output and MAP in (option C) is incorrect because Blood loss typically leads to a reduction in cardiac output due to decreased blood volume. Therefore, it does not raise cardiac output and MAP.
D. There is no direct correlation to MAP in (option D) is incorrect because: There is indeed a direct correlation between blood loss and MAP. As blood volume decreases, MAP decreases as well.
Therefore, the correct correlation between blood loss and MAP is that lower blood volume lowers MAP.
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