A 55-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombocytopenia. Upon assessment, you note petechiae on his lower extremities, and he reports fatigue and occasional nosebleeds. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized for this patient?

Monitor platelet counts and assess for signs of bleeding.

Administer aspirin to manage pain and prevent clot formation.

Administer a diuretic to reduce fluid retention and swelling.

Encourage the patient to increase physical activity to improve circulation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason:

Monitoring platelet counts and assessing for signs of bleeding is crucial for managing thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Regular monitoring helps in detecting any significant drops in platelet levels, allowing for timely interventions to prevent severe bleeding. Assessing for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, bruising, or nosebleeds, is essential to manage the condition effectively and prevent complications.

Choice B Reason:

Administering aspirin to manage pain and prevent clot formation is not appropriate for patients with thrombocytopenia. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet function, which can exacerbate bleeding tendencies in patients with low platelet counts. Using aspirin in this context could increase the risk of bleeding and is therefore contraindicated.

Choice C Reason:

Administering a diuretic to reduce fluid retention and swelling is not relevant for managing thrombocytopenia. Diuretics are used to manage conditions like hypertension and edema but do not address the underlying issue of low platelet counts. In fact, diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, which may complicate the patient’s condition further.

Choice D Reason:

Encouraging the patient to increase physical activity to improve circulation is not a priority intervention for thrombocytopenia. While physical activity is generally beneficial for overall health, it can increase the risk of trauma and bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. It is important to avoid activities that could lead to injury and bleeding in these patients.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is characterized by excessive urination and thirst due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or a renal insensitivity to ADH. Patients with DI typically present with hypernatremia (high serum sodium) and low urine osmolality, which contrasts with the findings of low serum sodium and high urine osmolality in this patient.

Choice B Reason:

Adrenal insufficiency can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemia due to a deficiency in aldosterone and cortisol. However, it usually presents with low serum osmolality and low urine sodium, which does not align with the patient’s laboratory results of high urine osmolality and elevated urine sodium.

Choice C Reason:

Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion, resulting in hypernatremia and hypokalemia. This condition does not match the patient’s findings of hyponatremia and high urine osmolality.

Choice D Reason:

Syndrome of inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of ADH, leading to water retention, hyponatremia, and concentrated urine. The patient’s laboratory results of low serum sodium, low serum osmolality, high urine osmolality, and elevated urine sodium are consistent with SIADH. This condition causes the kidneys to reabsorb water, diluting the blood and concentrating the urine.

A. Random blood glucose 126 mg/dL B. History of poor wound healing C. Report of decreased urinary output D. Clammy skin

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

A random blood glucose level of 126 mg/dL is not typically indicative of hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia is generally defined as a blood glucose level above 180 mg/dL. A level of 126 mg/dL is closer to the threshold for diagnosing diabetes but does not necessarily indicate hyperglycemia.

Choice B Reason:

A history of poor wound healing is a common manifestation of hyperglycemia. High blood sugar levels can impair the body’s ability to heal wounds by affecting blood flow and the function of immune cells. This can lead to prolonged wound healing times and an increased risk of infections.

Choice C Reason:

Decreased urinary output is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia. In fact, hyperglycemia often causes increased urinary output (polyuria) due to the body’s attempt to excrete excess glucose through urine. Decreased urinary output could be indicative of other conditions, such as dehydration or kidney issues.

Choice D Reason:

Clammy skin is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) rather than hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia can cause symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, and clammy skin due to the body’s response to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia, on the other hand, does not typically cause clammy skin.

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A 55-year-old male patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombocytopenia. Upon assessment, you note petechiae on his lower extremities, and he reports fatigue and occasional nosebleeds. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized for this patient?

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse in a provider’s office is collecting data from an older adult client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of hyperglycemia?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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