A 55-year-old male was admitted 1 week ago for a left lower leg venous thromboembolism, confirmed by ultrasound. He started to work from home 4 months ago and reports that his activity level has significantly decreased. When admitted, his left lower leg had 3+ edema and was warm and reddened over the calf area. He was immediately started on intravenous heparin therapy, with warfarin (Coumadin) on the same day. The patient asks the nurse why two medications are necessary. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
Taking two medications dissolves the blood clot much faster.
Because of the risk for a blood clot in the lungs, it is important for you to take more than one blood thinner.
Heparin will start to dissolve the clot, and warfarin will prevent any more clots from forming.
Heparin works right away, but warfarin takes several days to prevent clots.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect because the combination of heparin and warfarin does not dissolve the blood clot faster. Instead, these medications have different mechanisms of action. Heparin works quickly to prevent further clot formation, while warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels and maintain anticoagulation over the long term.
Choice B reason: While the risk of a blood clot in the lungs (pulmonary embolism) is a concern, the necessity of using both heparin and warfarin is not because of the need for multiple blood thinners but rather due to their complementary pharmacokinetics. Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation, whereas warfarin requires time to become effective.
Choice C reason: This statement is also incorrect. Heparin does not dissolve clots but works to prevent the extension of existing clots and the formation of new ones. Warfarin, likewise, does not dissolve clots but prevents further clot formation by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
Choice D reason: This is the accurate response. Heparin works immediately, providing rapid anticoagulation, which is essential for acute management of venous thromboembolism. On the other hand, warfarin takes several days to achieve its anticoagulant effect because it works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, the patient is initially placed on heparin to provide immediate protection against clotting while warfarin is started simultaneously. Once warfarin reaches a therapeutic level, heparin can be discontinued, and warfarin can maintain long-term anticoagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreasing blood glucose levels are not an indicator of effective therapy in patients with acute adrenal insufficiency. In fact, hypoglycemia is a common symptom of Addison's Disease due to insufficient cortisol production, and effective therapy would aim to normalize blood glucose levels, not decrease them further.
Choice B reason: Increasing serum potassium levels would indicate worsening of the condition rather than improvement. Hyperkalemia is a hallmark of Addison's Disease due to aldosterone deficiency, and effective therapy should decrease serum potassium levels, not increase them.
Choice C reason: Increasing serum sodium levels would indicate that the therapy is effective for acute adrenal insufficiency. Addison's Disease is characterized by hyponatremia due to aldosterone deficiency, and effective treatment aims to normalize sodium levels in the blood. An increase in serum sodium levels indicates that the treatment is correcting the underlying electrolyte imbalance.
Choice D reason: Decreasing serum chloride levels are not a specific indicator of effective therapy for Addison's Disease. Chloride levels are generally less affected and not a primary marker for assessing treatment efficacy. The main focus should be on correcting sodium and potassium imbalances.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Increasing serum potassium levels would not indicate effective therapy for a patient with Addison's disease. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough aldosterone, which is responsible for regulating sodium and potassium balance. As a result, patients with Addison’s disease often experience hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Effective therapy typically aims to normalize potassium levels, so an increase would suggest inadequate treatment or worsening of the condition.
Choice B reason:
Decreasing blood glucose levels would not typically be seen as a positive indicator in a patient with Addison's disease. The body’s ability to maintain normal blood glucose levels is compromised in Addison’s disease due to a deficiency in cortisol. Cortisol plays a key role in regulating glucose metabolism, and its deficiency can lead to hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels). If blood glucose levels are decreasing, it may indicate inadequate glucocorticoid replacement therapy, suggesting the therapy is not fully effective.
Choice C reason:
Decreasing serum chloride levels would not be expected in a patient with Addison’s disease who is receiving proper treatment. Chloride is regulated alongside sodium and is influenced by aldosterone. In Addison's disease, aldosterone deficiency leads to a decreased ability to retain sodium, which in turn can affect chloride levels. However, a decrease in chloride levels alone is not a clear sign of effective therapy. Normalization of serum sodium levels is a better indicator of treatment success.
Choice D reason:
Increasing serum sodium levels is the correct finding that indicates effective therapy in a patient with Addison’s disease. In this condition, aldosterone deficiency results in sodium loss through the kidneys, leading to hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Effective therapy, which typically involves the administration of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids (such as fludrocortisone), helps to correct this imbalance by increasing sodium retention and normalizing serum sodium levels. This would demonstrate that the current therapies are working to restore the electrolyte balance.
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