A 56-year-old menopausal woman reports to the registered nurse that she has been experiencing vaginal itching, burning, and an increase in vaginal infections over the past 3 years. What important factor should the nurse consider before responding to the client's concerns?

The client's vaginal pH may increase during menopause

The client's dietary habits and fluid intake

The client's genitourinary disorder will be alleviated over time

The client's history of sexually transmitted infections

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The client's vaginal pH may increase during menopause – During menopause, estrogen levels decrease, leading to a higher vaginal pH. This disrupts the normal vaginal flora, making the client more susceptible to infections and irritation.

B. The client's dietary habits and fluid intake – While nutrition and hydration affect overall health, they are not the primary cause of menopausal vaginal symptoms and infections.

C. The client's genitourinary disorder will be alleviated over time – Without treatment (e.g., vaginal estrogen therapy or lubricants), menopausal atrophic changes usually persist or worsen, rather than resolve over time.

D. The client's history of sexually transmitted infections – While STIs can cause vaginal discomfort, the client’s symptoms are more likely due to menopausal changes rather than a past history of STIs.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A. Penicillin
Penicillin is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not viral infections like HSV-2. Herpes simplex virus requires antiviral medications such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir for symptom management.

B. Perineal care of genital lesions
Proper perineal care helps prevent secondary infections and promotes healing. The client should be advised to keep the area clean and dry, avoid irritating soaps, and wear loose-fitting clothing.

C. Use of barrier protection
Consistent use of barrier protection (e.g., condoms) reduces the risk of transmitting HSV-2 to sexual partners. The client should be educated that HSV-2 can be transmitted even when lesions are not visible due to asymptomatic viral shedding.

D. Gardasil injection
Gardasil is a vaccine that protects against certain strains of Human Papillomavirus (HPV), not HSV-2. While both HSV-2 and HPV are sexually transmitted infections, they are caused by different viruses and require different preventive measures.

E. Hand washing
Proper hand hygiene prevents the spread of HSV-2 from touching lesions and transferring the virus to other body areas or individuals. Clients should be advised to wash hands thoroughly after touching affected areas.

A. "Placenta previa usually results in a higher risk of maternal hypertension, while abruptio placentae is commonly associated with a low-risk pregnancy." B. "Placenta previa is characterized by sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, while abruptio placentae is associated with painless bleeding." C. "Placenta previa typically presents with severe pain and contractions, whereas abruptio placentae involves painless bleeding without contractions." D. "Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, whereas abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "Placenta previa usually results in a higher risk of maternal hypertension, while abruptio placentae is commonly associated with a low-risk pregnancy.
This is incorrect because abruptio placentae, not placenta previa, is associated with maternal hypertension (e.g., preeclampsia, chronic hypertension). Placenta previa is not related to blood pressure issues.

B. "Placenta previa is characterized by sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, while abruptio placentae is associated with painless bleeding."
This is incorrect because placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, while abruptio placentae causes sudden, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and possibly dark red bleeding.

C. "Placenta previa typically presents with severe pain and contractions, whereas abruptio placentae involves painless bleeding without contractions."
This is incorrect because placenta previa does not cause pain or contractions. In contrast, abruptio placentae often presents with painful contractions and uterine hypertonicity.

D. "Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, whereas abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall."
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers the cervix (partial or complete), leading to bleeding. Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, which can lead to hemorrhage and fetal distress.

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A 56-year-old menopausal woman reports to the registered nurse that she has been experiencing vaginal itching, burning, and an increase in vaginal infections over the past 3 years. What important factor should the nurse consider before responding to the client's concerns?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A teenager presents to the clinic with complaints of painful lesions, fever, headache, and vaginal discharge. After testing she is diagnosed with Herpes simplex virus type 2. What education should the nurse include in a teaching plan? (Select All that Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the differences between placenta previa and abruptio placentae with a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements accurately differentiates placenta previa from abruptio placentae?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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