A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who reports feeling anxious, irritable, and unable to sleep despite extreme fatigue. The client also expresses feelings of inadequacy as a mother. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate?
Advise the client to seek help from family members to reduce stress and manage the baby's care
Assess the client for further signs of postpartum mood disorders
Reassure the client that these feelings are normal and will subside in a few days
Encourage the client to rest whenever the baby is sleeping to alleviate fatigue
The Correct Answer is B
A. Advise the client to seek help from family members to reduce stress and manage the baby's care – While social support is helpful, it does not directly address potential postpartum mood disorders, which require further evaluation.
B. Assess the client for further signs of postpartum mood disorders – These symptoms may indicate postpartum depression, which requires further assessment and potential intervention. Early identification is crucial to ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
C. Reassure the client that these feelings are normal and will subside in a few days – While some mood changes are common postpartum ("baby blues"), the intensity of these symptoms may indicate postpartum depression, which requires assessment.
D. Encourage the client to rest whenever the baby is sleeping to alleviate fatigue – While rest is important, it does not address the client's concerns about anxiety, irritability, and feelings of inadequacy, which may signal a mood disorder.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Depo-Provera."
Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone injection) is effective for contraception, but it may worsen menstrual irregularities and cause bone density loss with long-term use, making it less ideal.
B. "Contraceptive implant."
While progestin-only implants (e.g., Nexplanon) are effective, they do not protect against STIs. Additionally, irregular bleeding is a common side effect, which may not be ideal for someone with menorrhagia and irregular cycles.
C. "Combination oral contraceptives."
Estrogen-containing contraceptives (e.g., combined oral contraceptive pills) are contraindicated in women who smoke and are ≥35 years old due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). While this client is 22 years old, smoking still makes this option less preferable.
D. "Barrier methods such as female condoms."
Barrier methods reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which is crucial for this client with multiple sexual partners. Additionally, they do not contain hormones, making them safer for smokers.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client's level of sexual stimulation
Sildenafil requires sexual stimulation to be effective. It enhances blood flow to the penis but does not automatically cause an erection. The client should be educated that adequate sexual arousal is necessary for the medication to work.
B. If taken with a high-fat meal, the medication is more effective
Taking sildenafil with a high-fat meal can actually delay its absorption and reduce effectiveness. Clients should be advised to take it on an empty stomach or with a light meal for optimal results.
C. The client's recent consumption of caffeine
Caffeine intake does not interfere with sildenafil’s effectiveness. However, excessive caffeine consumption may contribute to vasoconstriction, which could indirectly affect erectile function.
D. If client took an additional dose to achieve an erection
Taking an extra dose of sildenafil is not recommended and can increase the risk of serious side effects such as hypotension, priapism (prolonged erection), and cardiovascular complications. The client should follow prescribed dosing guidelines.
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