A 59-year-old client is brought into the emergency room with complaints of chest pain. The client states that the pain is a crushing, constrictive pressure that is not relieved with position change. He states that the pain started 3 hours ago in the middle of his chest and radiates down his left arm. The client has a history of diabetes, asthma, and hypertension.
T: 99
BP: 138/72
HR: 106
RR: 19
ECG-ST segment depression
Troponin - Negative
The client is given medication for his unstable angina. Soon after, the client states that he is having difficulty breathing with audible wheezing heard on auscultation. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the symptoms experienced by this client?
Heparin
Morphine
Propranolol
Nitroglycerin
Answer: C
The Correct Answer is C
A. Heparin is an anticoagulant and does not typically cause bronchospasm or wheezing.
B. Morphine can cause respiratory depression but not bronchospasm.
C. Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, can cause bronchospasm, particularly in clients with asthma.
D. Nitroglycerin primarily causes vasodilation and does not typically lead to bronchospasm or wheezing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["900"]
Explanation
Calculate the actual urine output:
Total output - Irrigation solution = Actual urine output
2500 mL (total output) - 1600 mL (irrigation solution) = 900 mL (actual urine output)
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Serum insulin levels reflects short-term insulin secretion but does not indicate long-term glucose control.
B. Hemoglobin levels relate to anemia, not glucose control.
C. Hemoglobin A1C level reflects the average blood glucose over the past 2-3 months, providing an excellent measure of long-term control.
D. Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level reflects glucose levels at the moment of testing, not long-term control.
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