A 60-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. He is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. This disease results in:
Abnormally dilated arteries and veins
Arterial wall thinning and weakening
Autonomic nervous system imbalances
Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Abnormally dilated arteries and veins are not a result of atherosclerosis. They are a sign of aneurysms or varicose veins, which are caused by different factors.
Choice B reason: Arterial wall thinning and weakening are not a result of atherosclerosis. They are a sign of arteriosclerosis, which is a general term for the loss of elasticity and flexibility of the arteries.
Choice C reason: Autonomic nervous system imbalances are not a result of atherosclerosis. They are a sign of dysautonomia, which is a disorder of the nervous system that affects the regulation of vital functions.
Choice D reason: Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls are a result of atherosclerosis. They are caused by the accumulation of plaque, which is composed of cholesterol, fatty substances, calcium, and other materials.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Cool extremities are a sign of poor peripheral perfusion, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice B reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Increased urinary output is a sign of diuresis, which can be caused by diuretic medications, not vasodilators.
Choice C reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Pale skin is a sign of reduced blood flow to the skin, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice D reason: This is a physiological response to hydralazine. Reflex tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism that occurs when the blood pressure drops due to vasodilation. The heart rate increases to maintain the cardiac output and perfusion pressure.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Oliguria is not a forward effect of left ventricular heart failure. It is a backward effect that occurs due to reduced renal perfusion and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Choice B reason: Increased heart rate is a forward effect of left ventricular heart failure. It is a compensatory mechanism that occurs due to reduced cardiac output and sympathetic stimulation.
Choice C reason: Wet cough is a forward effect of left ventricular heart failure. It is a sign of pulmonary congestion and edema that result from increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and capillaries.
Choice D reason: Confusion is not a forward effect of left ventricular heart failure. It is a backward effect that occurs due to reduced cerebral perfusion and hypoxia.
Choice E reason: Jugular venous distention is not a forward effect of left ventricular heart failure. It is a backward effect that occurs due to increased pressure in the right atrium and vena cava.
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