A 7-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of an itchy, red rash on both hands.
The parent reports that the child recently started using a new brand of scented hand soap.
Upon examination, the nurse observes erythematous, dry, and scaly patches on the dorsum of both hands, without vesicles or oozing.
The child has no significant medical history and is otherwise in good health.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the child's skin condition?
Allergic reaction to a food item.
Irritant contact dermatitis due to the new scented hand soap.
Fungal infection acquired from a pet.
Atopic dermatitis (eczema) exacerbation.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Allergic reactions to food items typically manifest with systemic symptoms like hives, angioedema, vomiting, or diarrhea, in addition to skin manifestations. While a rash can occur, the localized nature of the dry, scaly patches on the hands, specifically after using a new hand soap, makes a food allergy less likely as the primary cause.
Choice B rationale
Irritant contact dermatitis is a localized inflammatory reaction of the skin caused by direct contact with an irritating substance. New scented hand soaps often contain chemicals and fragrances that can disrupt the skin barrier, leading to erythema, dryness, and scaling, particularly on areas frequently exposed like the hands. The absence of vesicles or oozing supports an irritant rather than an allergic reaction.
Choice C rationale
Fungal infections of the skin, such as tinea manuum, typically present with scaling, redness, and sometimes vesicles or pustules. While a pet can be a source of fungal infections, the recent introduction of a new hand soap makes an irritant reaction a more probable cause than a fungal infection, which usually develops more gradually.
Choice D rationale
Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by itchy, red, and scaly patches. While it can affect the hands, it often has a history of exacerbations and remissions and may be associated with other atopic conditions like asthma or allergies. The sudden onset after using a new product points more towards contact dermatitis rather than an eczema flare-up in a child with no significant medical history.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cryptorchidism is the medical term for the failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum. The scenario describes a 2-year-old male with one non-palpable testicle, which is the hallmark of cryptorchidism. Risk factors include prematurity and low birth weight.
Choice B rationale
An inguinal hernia is a protrusion of abdominal contents through the inguinal canal. While it can present as a swelling in the groin area, it is distinct from a missing testicle in the scrotum. Examination would typically reveal a palpable mass that may reduce with gentle pressure.
Choice C rationale
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis, the sac surrounding the testicle. It typically presents as a painless swelling of the scrotum. The testicle is usually palpable within the fluid-filled sac.
Choice D rationale
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency involving the twisting of the spermatic cord, which cuts off blood supply to the testicle. It presents with sudden, severe scrotal pain, swelling, and often nausea and vomiting. The examination would reveal a tender, firm, and retracted testicle. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A high elevation in the white blood cell count, or leukocytosis, is an expected inflammatory response in appendicitis. While an elevated WBC count (normal range typically 4,500 to 11,000 cells/mcL) indicates infection or inflammation, it does not necessarily signal immediate, life-threatening complications requiring immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Guarding, which is the tensing of abdominal muscles upon palpation, and rebound tenderness, pain that worsens when pressure is released, are classic signs of peritoneal irritation associated with appendicitis. These findings suggest inflammation of the peritoneum but do not indicate an immediate, critical emergency in the same way as sudden pain relief.
Choice C rationale
Sudden relief of pain in a child with appendicitis, followed by a rigid abdomen and fever, is a critical sign of a ruptured appendix and subsequent peritonitis. The rupture releases the pressure causing the initial pain, but the spillage of bowel contents leads to widespread inflammation of the peritoneum, a serious and potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate surgical intervention to prevent sepsis and other complications.
Choice D rationale
Abdominal tenderness in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), often referred to as McBurney's point, is a characteristic finding in appendicitis due to the inflammation of the appendix in this anatomical location. While it warrants investigation and treatment, localized tenderness alone does not indicate an immediate, life-threatening complication.
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