A 70-year-old male receiving high-dose IV furosemide for heart failure complains of ringing in his ears and dizziness. His current labs show normal potassium and sodium levels. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

Increase the infusion rate and check the patient's sodium levels again in 2 hours

Administer potassium supplements and continue the infusion

Reassure the patient that the symptoms are temporary and continue monitoring

Stop the furosemide infusion and notify the provider

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Increasing the infusion rate may exacerbate the patient's symptoms and does not address the potential toxicity from the furosemide.
B. Normal potassium levels indicate that potassium supplementation is unnecessary and does not address the dizziness and ringing in the ears, which could suggest ototoxicity from furosemide.
C. While reassurance can help, the patient's symptoms indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication that should not be ignored.
D. Stopping the furosemide infusion and notifying the provider is the most appropriate action due to the risk of ototoxicity and the need for further evaluation of the patient's symptoms.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Cortisol levels are not directly affected by furosemide; monitoring for adrenal function is not a priority.
B. Bicarbonate levels are not specifically monitored for clients on furosemide; this medication's main effect does not relate directly to bicarbonate balance.
C. Albumin levels are not primarily affected by furosemide; although low albumin can affect fluid status, it is not the critical monitoring focus.
D. Potassium levels should be monitored because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common and significant side effect due to increased renal excretion of potassium.

A. Conversion of the virus's RNA into DNA B. Having reverse transcriptase enzyme C. Containing only a single strand of genetic material D. Ability to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The conversion of RNA into DNA is a critical step in the HIV lifecycle, but it does not directly lead to opportunistic infections; instead, it allows the virus to integrate into the host’s genome.
B. Having reverse transcriptase enzyme is a characteristic of retroviruses like HIV that facilitates replication, but it does not cause opportunistic infections directly.
C. HIV containing a single strand of genetic material is a feature of its classification as a retrovirus but is not related to the risk of opportunistic infections.
D. The ability of HIV to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes is the key reason for opportunistic infections. CD4 cells are crucial for the immune response, and their depletion leads to immunosuppression, making the client susceptible to infections that would not typically affect an individual with a healthy immune system.

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A 70-year-old male receiving high-dose IV furosemide for heart failure complains of ringing in his ears and dizziness. His current labs show normal potassium and sodium levels. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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