A 75-year-old client with a recent history of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) presents with right hemiparesis. The nurse tests the deep tendon reflexes on the right side and elicits a brisk 4+ response. Which interpretation of this finding is accurate?

Absent or sluggish response consistent with a lower motor neuron lesion.

Flaccid paralysis.

Hyperactive response consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder.

A normal reflex

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   An absent or sluggish deep tendon reflex typically indicates a lower motor neuron lesion, which affects the peripheral nerves or spinal cord segments involved in reflex arc processing. Lower motor neuron lesions often result in reduced or absent reflexes, not brisk responses.
B.   Flaccid paralysis is characterized by a lack of muscle tone and reflexes, which is usually associated with lower motor neuron damage. A brisk 4+ reflex response does not indicate flaccid paralysis but rather heightened reflex activity.
C.   A brisk 4+ response indicates hyperactivity of the deep tendon reflexes, which is consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder. Upper motor neuron lesions, such as those resulting from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), often lead to increased reflex responses due to disruption in the normal inhibitory signals from the brain.
D.   A normal reflex response is typically classified as 2+ on a scale of 0 to 4, where 2+ is considered average or expected. A 4+ response indicates hyperactivity, which is not normal but rather indicates increased reflexes, usually associated with upper motor neuron issues.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). They are more indicative of gastrointestinal disturbances such as increased bowel activity or a bowel obstruction. Since the client's symptoms are related to heartburn, assessing bowel sounds is less relevant to GERD. This choice does not provide useful information for diagnosing or managing GERD.
B. This option is not commonly associated with GERD. In fact, small frequent meals are often recommended as a management strategy for GERD to reduce the occurrence of heartburn, as large meals can exacerbate symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. This choice does not align with typical GERD management strategies and may not be a useful symptom to assess in this context.
C. This finding is highly relevant for GERD. Heartburn that occurs or worsens when lying down, especially at night, is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease. When a person lies flat, stomach acid can more easily flow back into the esophagus due to decreased gravitational pressure, leading to heartburn. Identifying this symptom helps confirm GERD and guides management strategies, such as elevating the head while sleeping or avoiding late meals.
D. Light grey and chalky stools are indicative of issues related to bile production and could suggest a problem with the liver or biliary system rather than GERD. This symptom is not associated with GERD and would be more relevant in assessing conditions such as biliary obstruction or liver disease.

A. A cloudy discharge. B. An overactive bladder C. Black tarry stools. D. A weak urinary stream.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Cloudy discharge is more commonly associated with infections or discharge from the genital area rather than residual urinary symptoms. While urinary tract infections (UTIs) can cause cloudy urine, this is not typically associated with suprapubic tenderness or the sensation of residual pressure alone.
B. An overactive bladder is characterized by symptoms such as frequent urination, urgency, and sometimes incontinence. However, it does not typically cause suprapubic tenderness or a sensation of residual pressure after urination. The described symptoms are more consistent with bladder outlet obstruction or incomplete bladder emptying rather than an overactive bladder.

C. Black tarry stools indicate upper gastrointestinal bleeding and are unrelated to urinary symptoms. This finding would suggest a different issue entirely, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, rather than a problem with the urinary tract or bladder. This is not consistent with the client's reported symptoms of suprapubic tenderness and sensation of residual pressure after urination.
D. A weak urinary stream is a common symptom associated with bladder outlet obstruction or conditions affecting urinary flow, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in older men. This finding aligns with the client's reported symptoms of suprapubic tenderness and feeling of residual pressure after urination.

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A 75-year-old client with a recent history of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) presents with right hemiparesis. The nurse tests the deep tendon reflexes on the right side and elicits a brisk 4+ response. Which interpretation of this finding is accurate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is examining the abdomen of an older male client who expresses suprapubic tenderness on palpation. The client reports that it sometimes feels like there is still pressure in that area after urination. Which additional finding should the nurse expect with continued interview of the client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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