While obtaining a health history, a client tells the nurse that he sometimes experiences shortness of breath. The nurse determines that the client's respirations are regular and deep, and his respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What is the best nursing action?

Ask the client to perform light exercise and observe the respiratory effort.

Document "dyspnea on exertion" in the client's medical record.

Ask the client to describe the episodes of dyspnea in more detail.

Explain to the client the possible causes of dyspnea or "shortness of breath."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Performing light exercise may help in assessing how the client’s respiratory system responds to physical exertion and could reveal if the shortness of breath is related to activity. However, this action might not be appropriate if the client is currently asymptomatic or if the nurse needs more detailed information about the episodes of dyspnea.
B.   Documenting "dyspnea on exertion" might be appropriate if the nurse has already confirmed that the shortness of breath occurs specifically with physical activity. However, based on the information provided, the nurse has not yet gathered sufficient details to confirm whether the dyspnea is related to exertion or another cause.
C.   This option is the best initial action because it allows the nurse to gather detailed information about the nature, frequency, duration, and triggers of the client's shortness of breath. Understanding the context and specifics of the episodes will help in determining whether the dyspnea is related to underlying health issues, activity, or other factors.
D.   While explaining the possible causes of dyspnea can be informative for the client, it may not address the immediate need for a detailed assessment of the client's symptoms. Providing education is valuable, but understanding the client's specific experience with dyspnea should take precedence to tailor the explanation and subsequent care effectively.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. An absent or sluggish deep tendon reflex typically indicates a lower motor neuron lesion, which affects the peripheral nerves or spinal cord segments involved in reflex arc processing. Lower motor neuron lesions often result in reduced or absent reflexes, not brisk responses.
B. Flaccid paralysis is characterized by a lack of muscle tone and reflexes, which is usually associated with lower motor neuron damage. A brisk 4+ reflex response does not indicate flaccid paralysis but rather heightened reflex activity.
C. A brisk 4+ response indicates hyperactivity of the deep tendon reflexes, which is consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder. Upper motor neuron lesions, such as those resulting from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), often lead to increased reflex responses due to disruption in the normal inhibitory signals from the brain.
D. A normal reflex response is typically classified as 2+ on a scale of 0 to 4, where 2+ is considered average or expected. A 4+ response indicates hyperactivity, which is not normal but rather indicates increased reflexes, usually associated with upper motor neuron issues.

A. History of seasonal allergies and nasal congestion. B. Amount and type of caffeinated drinks before bedtime. C. Urinary frequency and episodes of nocturia. D. Usual bed time and time of awakenings.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A history of seasonal allergies and nasal congestion can affect sleep quality due to discomfort or breathing difficulties. While this information is relevant for identifying possible physical factors that might influence sleep, it is not the first piece of data to obtain when trying to understand the overall sleep pattern.
B. The consumption of caffeinated drinks before bedtime can significantly impact sleep quality. Caffeine is a stimulant that can disrupt sleep patterns and contribute to difficulty falling asleep. This assessment is important, but it should follow an initial understanding of the client’s overall sleep schedule and habits to determine how much caffeine might be affecting their sleep.
C. Urinary frequency and nocturia (waking up frequently to urinate during the night) can interfere with sleep and contribute to disturbances. This information is valuable for identifying potential causes of disrupted sleep but is typically assessed after understanding the client’s basic sleep patterns and schedule.
D. Understanding the client’s usual bedtime and time of awakenings provides essential information about their sleep schedule and overall sleep patterns. This data is crucial as it establishes a baseline for assessing the client’s sleep routine and helps identify any deviations or irregularities in their sleep behavior.

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While obtaining a health history, a client tells the nurse that he sometimes experiences shortness of breath. The nurse determines that the client's respirations are regular and deep, and his respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What is the best nursing action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 75-year-old client with a recent history of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) presents with right hemiparesis. The nurse tests the deep tendon reflexes on the right side and elicits a brisk 4+ response. Which interpretation of this finding is accurate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse assesses a client with a sleep pattern disturbance. In developing a plan of care, what assessment data should the nurse obtain first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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