A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponin. Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred:

Left ventricular heart failure

Unstable angina

Myocardial infarction (MI)

Prinzmetal angina

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason:
Left ventricular heart failure can cause severe chest pain and elevated cardiac enzymes but is not as directly associated with elevated cardiac troponin levels as a myocardial infarction. The presence of elevated troponin levels specifically indicates myocardial cell injury, which is most consistent with an MI.

Choice B reason:
Unstable angina involves chest pain that is not relieved by rest and may indicate a higher risk for an MI. However, it typically does not result in elevated cardiac troponin levels unless there is actual myocardial damage. Elevated troponin is a marker for myocardial infarction rather than just unstable angina.

Choice C reason:
Myocardial infarction (MI) is the correct answer. Elevated levels of cardiac troponin are a key indicator of myocardial infarction as they reflect heart muscle damage. The patient's severe chest pain and elevated troponin levels strongly suggest that an MI has occurred.

Choice D reason:
Prinzmetal angina, or variant angina, is characterized by chest pain caused by coronary artery spasms. While it can cause significant pain, it does not typically lead to elevated cardiac troponin levels unless it results in myocardial damage, which is less common than in an MI.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Using a different antifungal agent might be necessary due to the potential interaction between voriconazole and warfarin. Voriconazole can increase the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, selecting an alternative antifungal that does not interact with warfarin could be the safest option for the patient.
Choice B reason:
Reducing the dose of voriconazole may not adequately address the drug interaction issue. Voriconazole can significantly affect warfarin metabolism even at lower doses, leading to potential complications. Therefore, this choice is less likely to be recommended.
Choice C reason:
Administering intravenous voriconazole does not change its interaction with warfarin. The method of administration does not alter the drug's effect on warfarin metabolism, making this option inappropriate for managing the drug interaction.
Choice D reason:
Increasing the dose of warfarin is not a viable option as voriconazole increases warfarin's anticoagulant effect. This would further elevate the risk of bleeding and is not recommended. Thus, this option is incorrect.

A. Metoprolol B. Amiodarone C. Lidocaine D. Verapamil

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that primarily affects the heart by reducing heart rate and contractility. It does not specifically block the efflux of potassium. Beta-blockers are used to manage high blood pressure, angina, and certain arrhythmias, but they do not target potassium channels directly.

Choice B reason:
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that blocks the efflux of potassium from cardiac cells. It prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by inhibiting potassium channels, which helps to stabilize cardiac rhythms and prevent arrhythmias. This mechanism makes amiodarone effective in treating various types of arrhythmias.

Choice C reason:
Lidocaine is a class IB antiarrhythmic that primarily blocks sodium channels in the heart. It is used to treat acute ventricular arrhythmias, especially after a myocardial infarction. While it affects the electrical activity of the heart, it does not specifically block potassium efflux.

Choice D reason:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that primarily affects the influx of calcium into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. It is used to treat hypertension, angina, and certain arrhythmias, but it does not block potassium efflux.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponin. Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which medication blocks the efflux (outflow) of potassium at the heart muscle?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low-grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be:

When a patient asks the nurse what is the most common cause of myocardial ischemia, which statement is the correct response?

A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponin. Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred:

A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A 50-year-old is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). This condition is caused by:

A 65-year-old woman with no history of pulmonary or cardiovascular issues presents to the emergency department with nausea, fatigue, and fullness and pain of the abdomen. The nurse knows the assessment tests that will be ordered first will include:

The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and ranitidine (an H2 receptor blocker). Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?

Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions for 20 minutes before irreversible cell injury occurs: