A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponin. Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred:
Left ventricular heart failure
Unstable angina
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Prinzmetal angina
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Left ventricular heart failure can cause severe chest pain and elevated cardiac enzymes but is not as directly associated with elevated cardiac troponin levels as a myocardial infarction. The presence of elevated troponin levels specifically indicates myocardial cell injury, which is most consistent with an MI.
Choice B reason:
Unstable angina involves chest pain that is not relieved by rest and may indicate a higher risk for an MI. However, it typically does not result in elevated cardiac troponin levels unless there is actual myocardial damage. Elevated troponin is a marker for myocardial infarction rather than just unstable angina.
Choice C reason:
Myocardial infarction (MI) is the correct answer. Elevated levels of cardiac troponin are a key indicator of myocardial infarction as they reflect heart muscle damage. The patient's severe chest pain and elevated troponin levels strongly suggest that an MI has occurred.
Choice D reason:
Prinzmetal angina, or variant angina, is characterized by chest pain caused by coronary artery spasms. While it can cause significant pain, it does not typically lead to elevated cardiac troponin levels unless it results in myocardial damage, which is less common than in an MI.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication and is not used to treat viral infections such as herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect because it does not target the herpes virus, which causes conditions like shingles.
Choice B reason:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat infections caused by the herpes virus, including herpes-zoster (shingles). It works by inhibiting viral replication, reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. This makes it the correct choice for treating herpes-zoster infection.
Choice C reason:
Azole antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, not viral infections like herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect as it does not relate to the treatment of the herpes virus.
Choice D reason:
Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, not herpes-zoster. While it targets a viral infection, it is specific to the influenza virus and not effective against the herpes virus. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that primarily affects the heart by reducing heart rate and contractility. It does not specifically block the efflux of potassium. Beta-blockers are used to manage high blood pressure, angina, and certain arrhythmias, but they do not target potassium channels directly.
Choice B reason:
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that blocks the efflux of potassium from cardiac cells. It prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by inhibiting potassium channels, which helps to stabilize cardiac rhythms and prevent arrhythmias. This mechanism makes amiodarone effective in treating various types of arrhythmias.
Choice C reason:
Lidocaine is a class IB antiarrhythmic that primarily blocks sodium channels in the heart. It is used to treat acute ventricular arrhythmias, especially after a myocardial infarction. While it affects the electrical activity of the heart, it does not specifically block potassium efflux.
Choice D reason:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that primarily affects the influx of calcium into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. It is used to treat hypertension, angina, and certain arrhythmias, but it does not block potassium efflux.
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