A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance with a possible stroke. Vital signs are pulse 90, blood pressure 150/100, respirations 20. Thirty minutes later, vital signs are pulse 78, blood pressure 170/90, respirations 24 and irregular. The nurse should take which action at this time?
Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level.
Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids.
Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling.
Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level: Checking the phenytoin level would not be relevant in this situation as the client's presentation suggests a possible stroke, not related to phenytoin therapy.
B. Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids: While managing fluid balance is important, there is insufficient information to warrant decreasing IV fluids at this time. It's essential to assess the client's overall condition and consult with the healthcare provider before making changes to IV fluid administration.
C. Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling: Assessing the client's symptoms and response to treatment is crucial for monitoring her condition and guiding further interventions, especially in
the context of a possible stroke.
D. Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration: While maintaining hydration is
important, offering clear liquids would not address the potential stroke or irregular respirations. Assessment and intervention related to the client's neurological status and respiratory function take precedence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Start a labetalol drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg: This order is appropriate because it aims to lower the patient's blood pressure to a target range recommended for acute ischemic stroke management.
B. Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees: This intervention is part of stroke management to prevent aspiration and improve cerebral perfusion.
C. Begin tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) intravenously per protocol: The nurse should question this order because tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is contraindicated in patients with stroke who have had symptoms for more than 3 hours or have unknown time of onset, as in this case where the patient has been aphasic for 3 hours. Administering tPA in this situation could increase the risk of bleeding complications without providing benefit.
D. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr: This order is appropriate for maintaining hydration and intravascular volume in the acute care setting.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "You may be able to prevent Bell's palsy by doing facial exercises regularly." Regular facial exercises have not been proven to prevent Bell's palsy. In fact, excessive facial exercises could potentially exacerbate symptoms in some cases.
B. "Medications to treat Bell's palsy work only if started before paralysis onset." While early treatment with antiviral medications may be beneficial in some cases, it is not accurate to say that medications only work if started before paralysis onset. Treatment can still be effective even after the onset of symptoms, although it may not be as effective as when started early.
C. "Call the doctor if you experience pain or develop herpes lesions near the ear." This is important information because Bell's palsy has been associated with reactivation of the herpes simplex virus. Pain or the development of herpes lesions near the ear could indicate impending or active Bell's palsy, and prompt medical evaluation is necessary.
D. "Prophylactic treatment of herpes with antiviral agents prevents Bell's palsy." While antiviral medications can reduce the risk of herpes simplex virus reactivation, there is no guarantee that prophylactic treatment will prevent Bell's palsy. However, prompt treatment of herpes outbreaks may help reduce the risk.
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