A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department by ambulance with a possible stroke. Vital signs are pulse 90, blood pressure 150/100, respirations 20. Thirty minutes later, vital signs are pulse 78, blood pressure 170/90, respirations 24 and irregular. The nurse should take which action at this time?
Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level.
Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids.
Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling.
Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Check the client's phenytoin (Dilantin) level: Checking the phenytoin level would not be relevant in this situation as the client's presentation suggests a possible stroke, not related to phenytoin therapy.
B. Get an order to decrease the rate of IV fluids: While managing fluid balance is important, there is insufficient information to warrant decreasing IV fluids at this time. It's essential to assess the client's overall condition and consult with the healthcare provider before making changes to IV fluid administration.
C. Ask the woman to describe how she's feeling: Assessing the client's symptoms and response to treatment is crucial for monitoring her condition and guiding further interventions, especially in
the context of a possible stroke.
D. Offer the client clear liquids to prevent dehydration: While maintaining hydration is
important, offering clear liquids would not address the potential stroke or irregular respirations. Assessment and intervention related to the client's neurological status and respiratory function take precedence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The patient has dysphasia: Dysphasia (difficulty with speech) is a common symptom of stroke but does not contraindicate the use of aspirin for acute ischemic stroke management. Aspirin is routinely administered in the acute phase of ischemic stroke to prevent further clot formation.
B. The patient has atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of embolic strokes, and aspirin may be used for stroke prevention in certain cases. However, the presence of atrial fibrillation alone does not indicate a contraindication to aspirin administration in the acute setting of a suspected stroke.
C. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia: A history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or brief episodes of hemiplegia suggests a risk factor for stroke but does not necessarily contraindicate the use of aspirin in the acute phase of stroke
management. Aspirin is commonly used for secondary prevention after TIAs or minor strokes.
D. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache: Severe headache as the initial symptom of stroke raises concerns about a possible hemorrhagic stroke rather than an ischemic stroke. Administration of aspirin in the setting of a hemorrhagic stroke can worsen bleeding and increase morbidity and mortality. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving aspirin to determine the appropriate course of action based on the patient's presentation and diagnostic evaluation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Observe the client's ability to smile and frown: This assessment is related to cranial nerve VII (facial nerve), which controls facial expressions.
B. Instruct the client to look up and down without moving his head: Cranial nerve III (oculomotor nerve) controls eye movements, including upward and downward gaze. Asking the client to look up and down without moving the head assesses the function of this nerve.
C. Ask the client to shrug his shoulders against passive resistance: This assessment is related to cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles involved in shoulder shrugging.
D. Have the client stand with eyes his closed and touch his nose: This assessment is part of the cerebellar function test and assesses coordination and proprioception but does not specifically assess cranial nerve III.
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