A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wed pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question?
Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.
Give PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.
Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr.
Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
In septic shock, one of the key goals of management is to restore and maintain adequate intravascular volume. However, in this case, the patient's urine output is low (30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours), suggesting inadequate renal perfusion and potential fluid overload.
Administering additional normal saline at an increased rate (250 mL/hr) without addressing the low urine output could potentially exacerbate fluid overload and further compromise the patient's condition.
A. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV in (option A) is incorrect because: Hydrocortisone is commonly used in septic shock to help stabilize blood pressure and modulate the inflammatory response.
B. Giving PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV in (option B) is incorrect because Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be administered as needed to address fluid overload or to increase urine output if there is evidence of volume overload.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used in septic shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and maintain adequate blood pressure.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Septic shock is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe infection, systemic inflammation, and inadequate tissue perfusion. Hypotension, as indicated by a low blood pressure reading, is a significant concern in septic shock. It reflects inadequate perfusion to vital organs and tissues, leading to potential organ dysfunction and damage.
While all the assessment data provided may be important and require attention, the low blood pressure (BP) reading indicates impaired systemic perfusion and can contribute to end-organ damage. The nurse should prioritize interventions aimed at improving perfusion and stabilizing the patient's blood pressure.
A. Arterial oxygen saturation is 90% in (option A) is incorrect because While an arterial oxygen saturation of 90% is below the desired range, it is not as immediately life-threatening as low blood pressure. Oxygen therapy and interventions to improve oxygenation should still be initiated, but addressing hypotension takes priority.
B. Urine output of 15 ml for 2 hours in (option B) is incorrect because Decreased urine output is a concerning sign, as it may indicate impaired renal perfusion. However, the immediate concern in septic shock is addressing the low blood pressure to improve overall perfusion, including renal perfusion.
C. Apical pulse 110 beats/min in (option C) is incorrect because: Tachycardia is a common finding in septic shock and represents the body's compensatory response to maintain cardiac output. While it requires monitoring and consideration, low blood pressure is a more significant concern.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
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