A charge nurse is providing an in-service for a group of staff nurses about advance directives. Which of the following statements by a staff nurse indicates the teaching was effective?
The provider should sign the advance directives before it is valid."
The health care proxy is required to approve the client's wishes listed in advance directives."
"The health care proxy can add additional treatments to the advance directives."
"Advance directives should be documented in the client's medical record."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "The provider should sign the advance directives before it is valid." This statement is incorrect. Advance directives are valid once they are signed by the client, not the provider. The provider's signature is not required.
B. "The health care proxy is required to approve the client's wishes listed in advance directives." This statement is incorrect. The health care proxy does not have the authority to approve or alter the client's wishes. The proxy is responsible for ensuring that the client's wishes are followed as documented in the advance directives.
C. "The health care proxy can add additional treatments to the advance directives." This statement is incorrect. The health care proxy cannot add or change treatments listed in the advance directives. Their role is to make decisions based on the existing directives.
D. "Advance directives should be documented in the client's medical record." This statement is correct. Advance directives should be documented in the client's medical record to ensure that all healthcare providers are aware of and can adhere to the client's wishes.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client has gastroesophageal reflux disease. GERD does not typically increase the risk of falls.
B. The client is 62 years old. Age alone does not necessarily indicate a high fall risk, especially if the client is relatively healthy.
C. The client smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day. Smoking is a risk factor for many health issues but is not directly linked to an increased risk of falls.
D. The client has urinary incontinence. This is correct. Urinary incontinence increases the risk of falls, particularly if the client needs to frequently get up quickly to use the bathroom, potentially slipping or tripping.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Methadone Methadone is an opioid used primarily for severe pain and opioid dependency.
B. Hydrocodone Hydrocodone is an opioid used for moderate to severe pain but not specifically for neuropathic pain.
C. Morphine Morphine is an opioid used for severe pain but not specifically for neuropathic pain.
D. Gabapentin Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant medication that is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, making it appropriate for diabetic neuropathy.
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