A client asks the nurse for information about how to reduce risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide?
Consume a high protein diet.
Obtain a prostate-specific antigen blood level test.
Take vitamin supplements.
Increase physical activity.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because consuming a high protein diet is not a recommended strategy to reduce risk factors for BPH. In fact, some studies have suggested that a high protein intake may increase the risk of BPH by stimulating the production of insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), which may promote prostate growth.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because obtaining a prostate-specific antigen blood level test is not a preventive measure for BPH, but rather a diagnostic tool to detect prostate cancer or monitor its treatment. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland that can be elevated in both BPH and prostate cancer. However, PSA levels alone cannot distinguish between these two conditions and need to be interpreted along with other factors, such as age, race, family history, and digital rectal examination.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because taking vitamin supplements is not a proven method to reduce risk factors for BPH. While some vitamins, such as vitamin D and vitamin E, may have some beneficial effects on prostate health, there is not enough evidence to support their use as preventive agents for BPH. Moreover, some vitamins, such as vitamin A and vitamin B6, may have adverse effects on prostate health and increase the risk of BPH or prostate cancer.
Choice D reason: This is correct because increasing physical activity is a helpful way to reduce risk factors for BPH. Physical activity can help maintain a healthy weight, lower blood pressure, improve blood circulation, reduce inflammation, and regulate hormone levels. All of these factors can contribute to preventing or delaying the development of BPH.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Presenting a calm, supportive demeanor is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should use a soothing tone of voice, maintain eye contact, and avoid arguing or challenging the client's perceptions. This can help reduce the client's agitation and promote trust.
Choice B reason: Reorienting to day and time frequently is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should provide reality-based information and reminders about the client's situation, such as the reason for hospitalization, the name of the nurse, and the expected plan of care. This can help the client regain a sense of orientation and control.
Choice C reason: Administering an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can reduce anxiety, agitation, and psychotic symptoms by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, level of sedation, and risk of falls after giving the medication.
Choice D reason: Turning the television on for distraction is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The television can increase the sensory stimulation and confusion for the client, and may worsen the hallucinations or delusions. The nurse should provide a quiet and safe environment for the client.
Choice E reason: Applying soft wrist restraints bilaterally is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Restraints can increase the anxiety and agitation for the client, and may cause physical or psychological harm. The nurse should use restraints only as a last resort when other less restrictive measures have failed to protect the client or others from harm.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a) The client's age: The client is 70 years old, which puts her at a higher risk of having a stroke or other cardiovascular problems. Stroke is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent brain damage and disability.
b) The client's facial droop: The client has a noticeable facial droop, which is a sign of facial nerve weakness or paralysis. This can be caused by a stroke, Bell's palsy, or other neurological conditions. Facial droop can affect the client's ability to speak, eat, and express emotions.
c) The client's garbled speech: The client has garbled speech, which means she has difficulty producing or understanding words. This can be caused by a stroke, brain injury, or other disorders that affect the language areas of the brain. Garbled speech can impair the client's communication and cognition.
d) The client's alcohol consumption: The client had a few drinks at a seafood restaurant, which may have interacted with her medications or medical conditions. Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding, lower blood pressure, and worsen dehydration. Alcohol can also impair the client's judgment and coordination.
e) The client's seafood intake: The client ate seafood at a restaurant, which may have triggered an allergic reaction or food poisoning. Seafood allergies can cause symptoms such as hives, swelling, breathing difficulties, and anaphylaxis. Food poisoning can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.
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