A client at 28 weeks of gestation presents with bleeding from the vagina.
Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?
Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes
Low back pain and pelvic pressure
Change in vaginal discharge
Rupture of membranes
The Correct Answer is A
Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes.
This finding suggests that the client may have placental abruption, which is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause heavy bleeding, pain, and fetal distress.
Choice B is wrong because low back pain and pelvic pressure are common symptoms of preterm labor, which is not as urgent as placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because a change in vaginal discharge is not a specific sign of any complication and may be normal in pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because rupture of membranes is not a priority finding in this case, unless it is associated with infection or cord prolapse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm labor to improve neonatal outcomes.Betamethasone stimulates the production of surfactant, a substance that lubricates the lungs and prevents them from collapsing after birth.This reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome, a common complication of preterm birth.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not decrease the risk of infection in the newborn.In fact, it may increase the risk of maternal and neonatal infections by suppressing the immune system.
Choice C is wrong because betamethasone does not increase blood glucose levels in the newborn.However, it may cause transient hyperglycemia in the mother, which should be monitored and treated if necessary.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not decrease the risk of bleeding in the newborn.It may increase the risk of intraventricular hemorrhage, a type of bleeding in the brain, if given before 24 weeks of gestation.Therefore, it should be used with caution in this population and only after a family’s decision regarding resuscitation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Indomethacin is contraindicated for this client because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate or inflame the lining of the stomach and small intestine.This can worsen the client’s peptic ulcer disease, which is a condition where open sores develop on the inner surface of the stomach or small intestine due to acid erosion.
Indomethacin can also interact with other medications that the client may be taking for pre-term labor or peptic ulcer disease.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not contraindicated for this client.It is a medication that can relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and prevent pre-term labor contractions.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone is not contraindicated for this client.It is a corticosteroid that can help mature the fetal lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in pre-term infants.
Choice D is wrong because terbutaline is not contraindicated for this client.
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