The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with coronary artery disease who is admitted with intermittent chest pain. The admission laboratory results indicate elevations in troponin I and creatine phosphokinase myoglobin isoenzyme (CK-MB) levels.
What should the PN consider the most significant risk for this client on the second day of admission?
The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias
The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented.
The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI).
The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.
The Correct Answer is A
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart atack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
- The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
- The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
- The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Pupillary response is not relevant to the assessment of mesalamine's effectiveness.
Pupillary response is often assessed in neurological or ophthalmic evaluations and is not a direct measure of gastrointestinal function or the response to mesalamine therapy.
B) Incorrect- Peripheral pulses are not directly affected by mesalamine therapy, and monitoring them would not provide insight into the medication's effectiveness. Peripheral pulses are
typically assessed to evaluate the circulatory status and are not specific to the evaluation of gastrointestinal conditions.
C) Correct- Mesalamine is a medication commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. It helps to reduce inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring bowel patterns is important to assess the effectiveness of mesalamine in managing the symptoms of these conditions.
D) Incorrect- Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is used to assess respiratory function. While oxygen saturation is important for overall patient assessment, it is not directly related to mesalamine's effectiveness in treating inflammatory bowel disease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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