A client has a family history of prostate cancer and is committed to regular screening. What should the nurse teach the client about prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood testing?
"The PSA blood test is highly reliable at identifying prostate cancer."
"If you have a PSA blood test, you will not need a digital rectal examination."
"PSA blood tests should be performed annually starting at age 25."
"PSA can be elevated due to prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia, or infection."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: PSA isn’t highly reliable alone; false positives occur. It’s a screening tool, not definitive, requiring biopsy for diagnosis, making this inaccurate and less informative than explaining its broader causes for this client fully here.
Choice B reason: PSA complements, not replaces, digital rectal exam (DRE). Both detect cancer; PSA misses some tumors DRE finds, rendering this false and incomplete for teaching screening essentials to a committed client entirely here fully.
Choice C reason: Annual PSA at 25 is too early; guidelines suggest 50, or 40-45 with family history. This overstates frequency and timing, misguiding the client on evidence-based screening practices for prostate cancer risk comprehensively here.
Choice D reason: PSA rises with cancer, BPH, or infection, educating the client on its non-specificity. This accurate teaching supports informed screening with family history, clarifying why follow-up is key, making it the best response accurately here.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Syphilitic chancre is a painless ulcer, not itchy with white discharge. This STD lacks the erythematous, swollen, thick discharge presentation, excluding it from matching the client’s vaginal symptoms entirely and accurately in this case here.
Choice B reason: Trichomoniasis causes frothy, yellow-green discharge with itching, not thick white. This parasitic infection’s discharge differs from the observed curd-like consistency, making it less likely than candidiasis for this clinical picture fully here.
Choice C reason: Bacterial vaginosis produces thin, gray discharge with fishy odor, not thick white or intense itching. This bacterial imbalance contrasts with the erythematous, swollen findings, ruling it out as the suspected condition comprehensively here.
Choice D reason: Candidal vaginitis, from yeast, causes thick, white, curd-like discharge, itching, and erythema. This matches the client’s swollen labia and mucosal redness, making it the most likely diagnosis for these vaginal symptoms accurately here fully.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cerebral stagger isn’t a standard term; cerebral damage might cause spasticity, not wide-based ataxia. This lacks specificity for cerebellar signs like staggering, misaligning with the broad, unsteady gait tied to coordination loss in this client fully.
Choice B reason: Scissors gait, from cerebral palsy, shows stiff, crossed legs, not wide-based staggering. This spastic pattern contrasts with the unsteady, broad stance of cerebellar dysfunction, excluding it as the correct description for this presentation entirely here.
Choice C reason: Parkinsonian gait is shuffling with small steps and rigidity, not wide-based or staggering. This contrasts with the unsteady, broad stance of cerebellar ataxia, making it an incorrect match for the client’s observed walking pattern fully here.
Choice D reason: Cerebellar ataxia causes a wide-based, staggering gait due to coordination loss from cerebellar damage. This matches the client’s unsteady walk, reflecting impaired balance and motor control, accurately describing the observed gait pattern comprehensively here.
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