A nurse is integrating health promotion education into the assessment of a client's mouth, nose and throat. What interview question is most likely to identify a risk factor for oral cancer?
Do you have a history of chronic rhinitis?
Have you been prescribed immunosuppressive therapy?
How often do you usually go to the dentist in a year?
Do you have any difficulty chewing or swallowing?
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Chronic rhinitis affects nasal passages, not oral cancer risk, which ties to tobacco, alcohol, or HPV. This question targets sinus issues, missing key carcinogenic exposures or immunosuppression linked to squamous cell carcinoma in the mouth entirely here.
Choice B reason: Immunosuppressive therapy, like post-transplant drugs, raises oral cancer risk by impairing immune surveillance against HPV or malignant cells. This directly identifies a major risk factor, aligning with health promotion goals to detect oral cancer precursors effectively and accurately.
Choice C reason: Dental visit frequency reflects care access, not specific oral cancer risks like smoking. It’s indirect, missing direct links to immunosuppression or carcinogens, making it less effective for pinpointing etiology in a health promotion context fully here.
Choice D reason: Chewing or swallowing difficulty may signal advanced cancer, not risk factors. It’s a symptom, not a preventive focus, unlike immunosuppression, which precedes disease, reducing its utility for early identification in this educational assessment entirely and clearly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Acute otitis media shows a red, bulging tympanic membrane due to bacterial infection and pus. A pearly gray, shiny appearance contrasts this, indicating no acute inflammation or fluid, ruling out this active middle ear condition entirely.
Choice B reason: Serous otitis media presents with amber fluid behind a retracted or neutral tympanic membrane, not pearly gray and shiny. This suggests no sterile effusion, distinguishing it from the normal, healthy membrane observed in this inspection clearly.
Choice C reason: Scarring from past infections appears as white, opaque patches on the tympanic membrane, not uniform pearly gray shininess. This finding lacks the irregular, thickened look of scar tissue, pointing to an unscathed membrane instead here.
Choice D reason: A pearly gray, shiny tympanic membrane is normal, reflecting light off an intact, healthy eardrum. This lacks signs of infection or fluid, aligning with standard anatomy where the membrane’s cone of light confirms its integrity fully.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ear candles are unsafe, risking burns or wax deeper in the canal. They don’t effectively remove cerumen and can perforate the eardrum, contradicting evidence-based hygiene practices for preventing ear infections or blockages entirely in this context.
Choice B reason: Irrigation with saline is for impacted cerumen, not routine hygiene. It’s a clinical procedure, not a daily prevention measure, and risks pushing wax further or damaging the canal if done improperly, making it less suitable here.
Choice C reason: Washing the pinna with a warm, moist washcloth safely cleans the outer ear, preventing debris buildup without risking the canal or eardrum. This simple, effective hygiene step aligns with illness prevention goals for routine ear care perfectly.
Choice D reason: Cotton swabs can push cerumen deeper, causing impaction or eardrum perforation. This unsafe practice increases infection risk, opposing hygiene goals, and is widely discouraged in favor of external cleaning for safe ear maintenance consistently.
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