A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm3 (0.5 x 10/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range:

Neutrophils (ANC) [2.500 to 5,800/mm (2.5 to 5.8 x 10/L)]

Review need for pneumococcal vaccine.

Implement bleeding precautions.

Place the client in protective isolation.

Assess vital signs every 4 hours.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. An ANC of 500/mm3 (0.5 x 10/L) is indicative of severe neutropenia, which places the client at a significantly increased risk of developing infections due to the decreased ability of the immune system to fight off pathogens. Placing the client in protective isolation is essential to minimize the risk of exposure to infectious agents that could lead to severe infections
A. While reviewing the need for pneumococcal vaccine is important for preventing infections in immunocompromised clients, it may not be the most immediate priority in this scenario.
B. Implementing bleeding precautions is relevant for clients with thrombocytopenia but is not the most critical intervention for a client with severe neutropenia.
D. Assessing vital signs every 4 hours is a routine nursing intervention, but it may not directly address the heightened risk of infection associated with severe neutropenia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A high-pitched sound heard upon inspiration, known as a "stridor," can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress. In the postoperative period following an appendectomy, airway patency and adequate ventilation are essential for the client's oxygenation and recovery.
B. While a slightly elevated heart rate may be expected in the immediate postoperative period due to stress or pain, it does not typically require immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
C. Redness and edema at the incision site can be normal inflammatory responses following surgery.
D. Pain is common after surgery, and a pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10 indicates moderate to severe pain.

A. Meningococcal meningitis. B. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA). C. Intracerebral hemorrhage. D. Rocky mountain spotted fever.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Meningococcal meningitis is a bacterial infection of the meninges (the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord) caused by the bacterium Neisseria meningitidis. It is characterized by symptoms such as severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), and a petechial rash on the skin. The petechial rash is a distinguishing feature of meningococcal meningitis and is caused by bleeding into the skin due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) associated with the infection.
B. A cerebrovascular accident, commonly known as a stroke, occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted, leading to tissue damage and neurological deficits. While a stroke can cause symptoms such as headache and neurological deficits, it typically does not present with fever, nuchal rigidity, or a petechial rash.

C. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding within the brain tissue, often due to the rupture of a blood vessel. It can cause symptoms such as headache, neurological deficits, and alterations in consciousness, but it typically does not present with fever, nuchal rigidity, or a petechial rash.
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium. While RMSF can present with fever and rash, it typically does not present with nuchal rigidity, and the petechial rash associated with RMSF tends to start on the extremities rather than the arms and legs.

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A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm3 (0.5 x 10/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range: Neutrophils (ANC) [2.500 to 5,800/mm (2.5 to 5.8 x 10/L)]

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client who had an appendectomy 4 hours ago. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Five months following treatment for herpes zoster, an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Review H and P, nurse's note, and laboratory results. Click to mark whether the client statement indicates understanding or no understanding of the education given

The nurse is caring for a client with chemotherapy induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral tissues. Which is the best initial nursing action?

The nurse calls the healthcare provider because a client diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is reporting low back pain. Which additional information about the client would be important for the nurse to tell the healthcare provider?

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives to the clinic reporting episodes of weakness and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to monitor?

A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm3 (0.5 x 10/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range:

Neutrophils (ANC) [2.500 to 5,800/mm (2.5 to 5.8 x 10/L)]