Lactulose was prescribed two days ago for a client who was recently diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. The client is confused and experiencing frequent loose stools. Laboratory findings show an elevated serum ammonia (NH) level of 220 μg/dL (157.1 μmol/dL). Which action should the nurse take?

Reference Range:

Ammonia [10 to 80 μg/dL (6 to 47 μmol/L)]

Hold the next dose of lactulose.

Continue the prescribed dose of lactulose.

Replace total volume voided with oral or IV fluids.

Report the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider (HCP).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

B. Lactulose works by acidifying the colonic contents, which promotes the conversion of ammonia (NH3) to ammonium (NH4+). Ammonium is less readily absorbed from the colon into the bloodstream, reducing systemic ammonia levels. This action helps alleviate the neurotoxic effects of ammonia on the brain, thereby improving neurological symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
A. Lactulose is required in clients with hepatic encephalopathy to excrete ammonia lowering its levels in blood. Holding the lactulose dose is inappropriate as the client’s ammonia levels are still high
C. Rehydrating the clients to replace lost fluids in the loose stools is important but does not address
the client’s elevated ammonia levels which may be exacerbating the client’s encephalopathy.
D. Reporting the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider is important for ongoing assessment and management of the client's condition. However, it does not address the clients high ammonia levels.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. Vital sign measurements, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, are essential for assessing the client's hemodynamic stability and overall condition. A rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness suggests a potential surgical emergency, such as bowel perforation, which could lead to sepsis and hemodynamic instability. Therefore, obtaining vital sign measurements promptly will help determine the severity of the client's condition and guide further interventions.
A. Encouraging ambulation would not be appropriate in this situation because it could exacerbate the client's discomfort and potentially worsen any abdominal pain or tenderness. Ambulation is not the priority when a client presents with signs of a possible bowel perforation.
B. Measure capillary glucose level: While monitoring blood glucose levels is important, especially in clients receiving corticosteroid treatment, it is not the priority when the client is presenting with symptoms suggestive of a serious complication such as bowel perforation. Immediate assessment and intervention to address the abdominal rigidity and rebound tenderness are needed before other assessments can be performed.
C. While bloody stools are a common symptom of IBD exacerbation, the presence of a rigid abdomen with rebound tenderness suggests a more urgent issue, such as bowel perforation, that requires immediate attention. Monitoring for bloody stools should occur concurrently with assessing and managing the client's acute abdominal symptoms.

A. Increase physical activity. B. Take vitamin supplements. C. Consume a high protein diet. D. Obtain a prostate-specific antigen blood level test.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Physical activity helps maintain overall health, including cardiovascular fitness, weight management, and hormonal balance, which may contribute to reducing the risk of BPH development or progression.
B. There is limited evidence to support their role in preventing or reducing the risk of BPH
C. Dietary factors such as overall calorie intake, fat consumption, and specific food choices may play a role in prostate health, but the relationship between protein intake and BPH risk is not well- established.
D. PSA testing is used for screening and monitoring prostate cancer, not BPH.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is hospitalized with an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) exacerbation and is being treated with a corticosteroid. The client develops a rigid abdomen with rebound lendemess. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client asks the nurse for information about how to reduce risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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