A client has received a prescription for loratadine suspension, 10 mg to be taken orally once a day. The bottle is labeled as "Loratadine for Oral Suspension, USP 5 mg per 5 mL." How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take? (Please enter the numerical value only.)
The Correct Answer is ["2"]
Step 1: We need to find out how many mL contain 10 mg of loratadine. Since 5 mg of loratadine is in 5 mL, we can set up a proportion to find out how many mL contain 10 mg.
So, 5 mg is to 5 mL as 10 mg is to X mL.
This gives us the equation: (5 mg ÷ 5 mL) = (10 mg ÷ X mL)
Step 2: Solving for X gives us X = (10 mg × 5 mL) ÷ 5 mg
Step 3: Simplifying gives us X = 10 mL
So, the client needs to take 10 mL of the loratadine suspension to get a dose of 10 mg.
Now, we need to convert this volume in mL to teaspoons, using the conversion factor you provided (1 teaspoon = 5 mL).
Step 4: We set up the conversion as follows: 10 mL × (1 tsp ÷ 5 mL)
Step 5: Simplifying gives us 2 tsp
So, the nurse should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the loratadine suspension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While living in older housing projects can pose a risk, the age of the child and their behaviors, such as hand-to-mouth activities, make younger children more susceptible.
Choice B reason: A 2-year-old is at the highest risk due to their developmental stage, which includes frequent hand-to-mouth activity and the likelihood of playing in soil or dust that may be contaminated with lead.
Choice C reason: Adolescents working in a paint factory may be exposed to lead; however, they are less likely to engage in hand-to-mouth behaviors that lead to ingestion, which is the primary route of lead poisoning in children.
Choice D reason: A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes mellitus does not have an increased risk of lead poisoning based on their condition alone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Right lower abdominal pain is not typically associated with Wernicke's syndrome and would likely indicate a different issue.
Choice B reason: Peripheral neuropathy can be a symptom of Wernicke's syndrome, but it is not as central to the condition as confusion, which is a hallmark sign.
Choice C reason: Confusion is a primary symptom of Wernicke's syndrome and should be used in planning the client's care, as it indicates acute encephalopathy and the need for immediate treatment with thiamine.
Choice D reason: Depression may be present in clients with Wernicke's syndrome, but it is not a primary assessment finding used to plan care for the acute stage of the condition.
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