The nurse is assessing an older adult client who is having difficulty remembering events from earlier in the day and concentrating on the questions being asked. A family member shares that the client's home was recently sold and the client has just moved in with them. Which nursing response best promotes effective communication with the family?

Delirium is often a sign of underlying mental illness, and institutionalization is often necessary.

If the dementia is a result of Alzheimer's disease, it is often reversible even in the late stages.

The client's delirium may be due to depression and is possibly reversible.

The client is exhibiting symptoms of dementia, and because of age, it may be permanent.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Suggesting that delirium is often a sign of underlying mental illness and that institutionalization is necessary can be distressing and may not be accurate without further assessment.

Choice B reason: Stating that dementia due to Alzheimer's disease is often reversible even in the late stages is incorrect; Alzheimer's disease is a progressive condition with no current cure.

Choice C reason: Recognizing the possibility of delirium due to depression, which can be reversible, is a hopeful and constructive approach that encourages further evaluation and treatment options.

Choice D reason: Suggesting that symptoms of dementia are permanent because of age can be disheartening and does not consider the potential for reversible causes of cognitive impairment.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

Step 1: We need to find out how many mL contain 10 mg of loratadine. Since 5 mg of loratadine is in 5 mL, we can set up a proportion to find out how many mL contain 10 mg.

So, 5 mg is to 5 mL as 10 mg is to X mL.

This gives us the equation: (5 mg ÷ 5 mL) = (10 mg ÷ X mL)

Step 2: Solving for X gives us X = (10 mg × 5 mL) ÷ 5 mg

Step 3: Simplifying gives us X = 10 mL

So, the client needs to take 10 mL of the loratadine suspension to get a dose of 10 mg.

Now, we need to convert this volume in mL to teaspoons, using the conversion factor you provided (1 teaspoon = 5 mL).

Step 4: We set up the conversion as follows: 10 mL × (1 tsp ÷ 5 mL)

Step 5: Simplifying gives us 2 tsp

So, the nurse should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the loratadine suspension.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels, typically below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L). The client’s fasting blood glucose level is 122 mg/dL (6.8 mmol/L), which is above the normal range, thus ruling out hypoglycemia.

Choice B Reason: Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when the fasting blood glucose level is 126 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) or higher on two separate tests1. The client’s level is slightly below this threshold, suggesting that he does not currently have diabetes mellitus but is at risk.

Choice C Reason: Prediabetes is indicated by a fasting blood glucose level of 100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L)1. The client’s level falls within this range, indicating that he has higher than normal blood glucose levels but not high enough to be classified as diabetes, hence prediabetes.

Choice D Reason: Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not applicable to this male client.

Option i Reason: Fatty liver disease is not directly indicated by the laboratory results provided and is typically associated with elevated liver enzymes and imaging findings.

Option ii Reason: Occupational factors are not directly related to the fasting blood glucose levels.

Option iii Reason: Lack of insulin production is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes, which is not indicated by the client’s fasting blood glucose level alone.

Option iv Reason: Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition where blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes. It is a characteristic of prediabetes and is indicated by the client’s fasting blood glucose level.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has received a prescription for loratadine suspension, 10 mg to be taken orally once a day. The bottle is labeled as "Loratadine for Oral Suspension, USP 5 mg per 5 mL." How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take? (Please enter the numerical value only.)

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

Patient Data: Exhibits Review H and P and laboratory results. Based on the laboratory data, the client has dropdown related to dropdown

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

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