A client in the coronary care unit is receiving a diltiazem infusion for atrial fibrillation. The nurse observes on the cardiac monitor that the client's heart rate has converted to sinus bradycardia at a rate of 50 beats/minute. Which nursing action should be performed first?

Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads.

Place the client in Trendelenberg position.

Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate.

Administer a dose of atropine.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Apply transcutaneous pacemaker pads: While this is a potential intervention for symptomatic or severe bradycardia unresponsive to medications, it is premature as a first step in this scenario. The client is stable with a heart rate of 50 bpm and no mention of hemodynamic compromise.

B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position: This position is used to improve venous return in hypotensive patients, but there is no evidence of hypotension or poor perfusion. It is not an appropriate response to mild bradycardia in this context.

C. Call the doctor for an order to decrease the infusion rate: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows AV node conduction, potentially causing bradycardia. Since the heart rate has dropped to 50 bpm, the most appropriate first action is to contact the provider to adjust the infusion rate, which may be too high for the client’s current rhythm.

D. Administer a dose of atropine: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. If the client is asymptomatic and the bradycardia is mild and medication-induced, adjusting or discontinuing the offending agent should be attempted before administering atropine.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. vegetative embolization to the kidneys: Infective endocarditis is an infection of the heart valves or the endocardium. Vegetations (clumps of bacteria, fibrin, and platelets) can form on the damaged heart structures. These vegetations are fragile and can break off, forming emboli that travel through the bloodstream to various organs. Embolization to the kidneys can cause renal infarction, leading to sharp flank pain due to ischemia or infarction of kidney tissue and hematuria.

B. hemolysis of red blood cells by hemolytic microorganisms: While some bacteria can cause hemolysis, it is not typically associated with localized flank pain. Hemolysis would present with systemic signs such as jaundice, fatigue, and anemia, not acute flank pain and visible hematuria.

C. septicemia resulting in decreased glomerular blood flow: Septicemia may impair renal perfusion over time but would more likely lead to generalized signs of acute kidney injury, such as oliguria and rising creatinine levels, rather than acute flank pain and hematuria.

D. bacterial infection in the kidneys: Acute pyelonephritis can cause flank pain and hematuria, but in the context of infective endocarditis, embolic events are a more likely and urgent explanation for new-onset symptoms, particularly sharp localized pain.

A. Complete the remainder of the assessment. B. Obtain an order for adenosine IV. C. Notify the physician of the symptoms. D. Administer the prescribed ace inhibitor.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Complete the remainder of the assessment: While ongoing assessment is important, the rhythm strip shows atrial flutter, a potentially unstable arrhythmia, and the client is experiencing symptoms (nausea after breakfast) which could suggest compromised cardiac output. Completing the remainder assessment delays the necessary intervention.

B. Obtain an order for adenosine IV: Adenosine is typically used for stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), not for atrial flutter, as it may not terminate the rhythm. It may slow conduction enough to better visualize flutter waves, but initiating it without a provider's order or further evaluation is inappropriate.

C. Notify the physician of the symptoms: The client’s rhythm strip shows atrial flutter with a rapid ventricular response and the patient is experiencing nausea, which could indicate decreased perfusion or early decompensation. Immediately notifying the provider is the safest and most appropriate action for further evaluation and treatment planning.

D. Administer the prescribed ACE inhibitor: ACE inhibitors are used for blood pressure control or heart failure management, not for acute rhythm disturbances. Administering it would not address the current rhythm or symptoms and could worsen hypotension if cardiac output is compromised.

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A client in the coronary care unit is receiving a diltiazem infusion for atrial fibrillation. The nurse observes on the cardiac monitor that the client's heart rate has converted to sinus bradycardia at a rate of 50 beats/minute. Which nursing action should be performed first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client hospitalized with infective endocarditis develops sharp flank pain and hematuria. The nurse notifies the physician, recognizing that these clinical manifestations may indicate:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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