During shift report a colleague states that there is 350 mLs remaining in the client's IV and it has to infuse for 2 more hours. The nurse confirms this matches the order. If the drip factor is 12 gtts/ml, what is the current IV rate? DOCUMENT ANSWER IN THIS FORMAT: RATE gtts/min (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["35"]
Calculate the total infusion time in minutes.
Infusion time in minutes = 2 hours × 60 minutes/hour
= 120 minutes
Calculate the total number of drops to be infused.
The total volume remaining is 350 mL
Drip factor is 12 gtts/mL.
Total drops = Total volume (mL) × Drop factor (gtts/mL)
Total drops = 350 mL × 12 gtts/mL
= 4200 gtts
Calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute (gtts/min).
IV rate (gtts/min) = Total drops / Total infusion time (minutes)
= 4200 gtts / 120 minutes
= 35
=35 gtts/min
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The TEE evaluates if emboli are present if cardioversion is required: A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) provides detailed imaging of the heart’s chambers, particularly the left atrium and left atrial appendage, where clots often form in atrial fibrillation. It is used to rule out thrombi before cardioversion to reduce the risk of stroke during the procedure.
B. The study will use electric current to stop the abnormal conduction pathway: This describes electrical cardioversion, not TEE. TEE is a diagnostic imaging procedure and does not involve the delivery of electrical currents to modify the heart's rhythm or conduction.
C. A TEE will help restore the client's underlying baseline normal rhythm: TEE does not treat arrhythmias. Its role is diagnostic—to visualize cardiac structures, not to restore normal rhythm. Cardioversion or pharmacologic agents are required to correct atrial fibrillation.
D. A TEE is required prior to implantable defibrillator placement in clients with atrial fibrillation: TEE is not routinely required before implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement. ICD decisions are usually based on ejection fraction, rhythm stability, and risk of sudden cardiac arrest, not the presence or absence of atrial thrombi.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "The diaphragmatic nerve overdrives the rapid rhythm:" The phrenic (diaphragmatic) nerve controls the diaphragm for breathing and plays no role in cardiac rhythm regulation. It is unrelated to the autonomic control of heart rate or supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) management.
B. "Vagal stimulation decreases peripheral vascular resistance:" Vagal stimulation primarily affects the heart by decreasing the rate and conduction through the AV node. Its effect on vascular resistance is minimal, making this explanation inaccurate in the context of SVT treatment.
C. "The vagus nerve increases the heart rate, overdriving the rhythm:" The vagus nerve has a parasympathetic effect, slowing down the heart rate, not increasing it. Overdrive pacing is a different concept and not related to vagal maneuvers like carotid massage.
D. "The vagus nerve slows the heart rate": The carotid sinuses in the neck contain baroreceptors that are sensitive to pressure. Massaging these sinuses stimulates the vagus nerve to release acetylcholine, which in turn slows conduction through the AV node and may terminate episodes of SVT. This response demonstrates an accurate understanding of the purpose of the procedure.
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