During shift report a colleague states that there is 350 mLs remaining in the client's IV and it has to infuse for 2 more hours. The nurse confirms this matches the order. If the drip factor is 12 gtts/ml, what is the current IV rate? DOCUMENT ANSWER IN THIS FORMAT: RATE gtts/min (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["35"]
Calculate the total infusion time in minutes.
Infusion time in minutes = 2 hours × 60 minutes/hour
= 120 minutes
Calculate the total number of drops to be infused.
The total volume remaining is 350 mL
Drip factor is 12 gtts/mL.
Total drops = Total volume (mL) × Drop factor (gtts/mL)
Total drops = 350 mL × 12 gtts/mL
= 4200 gtts
Calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute (gtts/min).
IV rate (gtts/min) = Total drops / Total infusion time (minutes)
= 4200 gtts / 120 minutes
= 35
=35 gtts/min
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Dopamine and 50% non-rebreather mask: Dopamine is a vasopressor used in hypotension or shock, an inotropic agent used to improve cardiac output, not typically first-line for anxiety or respiratory distress. A non-rebreather mask may provide high oxygen levels but can be overwhelming and exacerbate anxiety if not well tolerated.
B. Nesiritide IV infusion and digoxin PO: Nesiritide is a vasodilator which may reduce preload and afterload in heart failure, and digoxin is a positive inotrope that can improve contractility, but neither offers rapid relief for anxiety and dyspnea. These medications have slower onset and are not used primarily for symptom control in acute distress.
C. Diazepam IV push and metoprolol IV: While diazepam may reduce anxiety, it can depress respiration, which is dangerous in decompensated heart failure with potential pulmonary edema. Metoprolol reduces heart rate and contractility and must be used cautiously in acute settings.
D. Morphine IV and oxygen 2 liters via nasal cannula: Morphine reduces preload, anxiety, and the sensation of breathlessness, making it ideal in acute decompensated heart failure. Low-flow oxygen improves oxygenation without overwhelming the patient. This combination directly targets both physiologic and psychological distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. ambulate in the hall 3 times daily without shortness of breath: This directly reflects improved tolerance to activity, the central focus of the nursing diagnosis. Being able to ambulate without dyspnea indicates better cardiac output and ventricular function, marking resolution of the identified problem.
B. have an increase in systolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg during activity: A rise in systolic pressure may occur with exertion, but it does not necessarily indicate improved activity tolerance. In fact, an exaggerated BP response could indicate the heart is working harder than it should to meet the demands, suggesting poor cardiovascular adaptation to exercise.
C. decrease weight from 150 lbs. (68.2 kg.) to 148 lbs. (67.3 kg.) in five days: A slight weight reduction may reflect decreased fluid retention, but this outcome is more relevant to volume status and fluid balance than to resolving activity intolerance specifically.
D. verbalize the signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure by discharge:
While important for client education and self-management, this outcome relates to knowledge rather than physical tolerance to activity. It does not directly measure resolution of activity intolerance.
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