The nurse is caring for a client who is two weeks post-op hip replacement and has a wound infection. The client's admission vital signs are: Temperature 102 F (38.8 C) orally, HR 150/min (rhythm is shown below). Respiratory rate- 22/min, and Blood pressure is 128/72. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse understands that the client:

surgery has caused an episode of supraventricular tachycardia.
is febrile which is causing the heart rate to be elevated.
is in heart failure and the heart rate is elevated to compensate.
probably has a low oxygen saturation causing an increased respiratory rate.
The Correct Answer is B
A. surgery has caused an episode of supraventricular tachycardia: While stress or surgery can trigger arrhythmias, the ECG shown demonstrates a sinus tachycardia pattern (narrow QRS complexes with identifiable P waves before each QRS), not supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which typically has a very rapid, regular rhythm often without visible P waves.
B. is febrile which is causing the heart rate to be elevated: The client has a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C), which can increase metabolic demand and lead to sinus tachycardia. Fever is a common and expected cause of elevated heart rate, especially when accompanied by infection, such as the client’s post-op wound infection.
C. is in heart failure and the heart rate is elevated to compensate: There is no evidence from the scenario (no dyspnea, crackles, edema, or reduced BP) that supports heart failure. The elevated HR is more directly related to the fever and infection, not cardiac decompensation.
D. probably has a low oxygen saturation causing an increased respiratory rate: The respiratory rate is slightly elevated (22/min), but there is no mention of hypoxia or oxygen saturation levels. Tachycardia secondary to hypoxia would require clinical indicators of respiratory distress or desaturation, which are not demonstrated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer the dose later in the day when their nausea subsides: Delaying the dose does not address the underlying concern of potential digoxin toxicity. Symptoms like nausea and visual disturbances suggest toxicity and require immediate assessment rather than postponement.
B. Assess the client's apical rate: The first and most appropriate nursing action is to assess the apical heart rate for one full minute, as bradycardia is a key indicator of digoxin toxicity. If the rate is below 60 bpm, the dose should be held, and the provider should be notified.
C. Contact the physician for STAT serum potassium level: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, but while checking potassium is important, it is not the first step. Assessment of heart rate is more immediately critical in evaluating the need to hold the medication.
D. Administer the client's prescribed dose intravenously: Administering the dose especially IV when the client has symptoms of toxicity could worsen the situation. Digoxin should be held, not given, until further evaluation and provider notification.
Correct Answer is E
Explanation
A. contact the prescriber to decrease the rate of the D51/2NS during the blood transfusion: There's no need to alter the rate of maintenance fluids unless there's a fluid volume concern. Additionally, decreasing the rate would not address the need for a dedicated blood transfusion line if another lumen is available.
B. stop the D51/2NS, check the client's vitals & notify the prescriber: Stopping necessary fluids without cause may compromise fluid balance. Unless there's a compatibility issue or no other lumen, stopping the infusion is not the safest or most efficient action.
C. Fluids cannot be given through a CVC: Central venous catheters are routinely used for administering fluids, medications, and blood products, especially in critical care settings.
D. Insert a 22 gauge peripheral IV to administer the transfusion: While blood can be given through a peripheral IV, using an existing central venous catheter is safer and more efficient, especially when multiple lumens are available. Inserting a new IV unnecessarily increases infection and complication risks.
E. transfuse the unit of packed red blood cells through a separate lumen of the CVC: This is the safest and most appropriate action. Triple-lumen CVCs allow for simultaneous infusions through separate channels without mixing. Blood should be transfused through a dedicated lumen to avoid incompatibility or dilution by other fluids.
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