A client in the gynecology clinic asks the nurse, ‘’What are the risk factors for developing cervical cancer?’’ Which statement by the nurse is the best response?
A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix
Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors
The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk
Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from develop cancer
The Correct Answer is C
A) A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix
Rhinovirus is primarily associated with the common cold and respiratory infections, not with cervical cancer. The risk factors for cervical cancer are related to persistent infections with certain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), especially high-risk types like HPV-16 and HPV-18, which can lead to cervical dysplasia and, eventually, cervical cancer.
B) Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors
While diet and certain medications may influence overall health, eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are not primary risk factors for cervical cancer. Research has shown that certain hormonal contraceptives (especially long-term use) may slightly increase the risk of cervical cancer, but the most significant and well-established risk factor is HPV infection, not fat intake or birth control use.
C) The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk
The major risk factor for cervical cancer is persistent infection with high-risk HPV. Early initiation of sexual activity and having multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is a leading cause of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted through sexual contact, and early exposure to the virus, as well as repeated exposure to multiple partners, increases the likelihood of acquiring a high-risk strain of HPV.
D) Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from developing cancer
While Pap smears (Pap tests) are important for detecting precancerous changes (such as dysplasia) or early-stage cervical cancer, they do not prevent cancer. Pap smears can help identify abnormal cell changes that can be treated before they develop into cancer, but they do not protect against the development of cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Dyspnea, crackles, hypertension, and edema:
These symptoms suggest a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) or circulatory overload (TACO), both of which are potentially life-threatening conditions. In cases of TRALI or TACO, the nurse should stop the transfusion immediately but should NOT administer 0.9% normal saline because saline could exacerbate fluid overload and worsen pulmonary edema. Instead, the nurse should focus on managing respiratory distress, ensuring proper oxygenation, and notifying the healthcare provider for further intervention.
B) Low back pain, hypotension, and tachycardia:
These symptoms are typically indicative of a hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR), which requires immediate intervention. In this case, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, but the nurse should begin administering 0.9% normal saline to help maintain the patient's blood pressure and promote kidney perfusion to prevent renal damage.
C) Urticaria, itching, wheezing, angioedema:
These symptoms are characteristic of a mild allergic reaction to the blood transfusion. In this case, the nurse should stop the transfusion and administer 0.9% normal saline to maintain the patient’s hydration and blood pressure while managing the allergic reaction. The healthcare provider may order antihistamines or corticosteroids to treat the allergic symptoms.
D) Chest tightness, fever, chills/rigors:
These are common symptoms of a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR), which is generally not life-threatening. The nurse should stop the transfusion but can continue administering 0.9% normal saline to support hydration and circulation. FNHTR is often managed with antipyretics (e.g., acetaminophen) to reduce fever and chills, and the transfusion may be resumed if symptoms resolve
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs):
Packed Red Blood Cells are typically transfused when there is anemia or significant blood loss leading to low hemoglobin levels. In the case of warfarin overdose or elevated PT/INR, the problem is related to coagulation and not red blood cell count.
B) Platelets:
Platelets are typically transfused when there is thrombocytopenia or a need to address platelet dysfunction (e.g., in patients with bleeding due to low platelet counts). However, the elevated PT and INR in this case are related to the coagulation cascade being inhibited by warfarin, not platelet deficiency.
C) Cryoprecipitate:
Cryoprecipitate is primarily used to replace clotting factors such as fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor. It is typically transfused in patients with hemophilia or bleeding disorders related to low fibrinogen levels. However, in this case, the issue is related to warfarin-induced inhibition of clotting factors (specifically the vitamin K-dependent factors: II, VII, IX, and X), not a deficiency in fibrinogen or specific clotting factors addressed by cryoprecipitate.
D) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP):
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is the most appropriate choice for this patient. FFP contains all the coagulation factors, including the vitamin K-dependent factors that warfarin inhibits. When a patient on warfarin presents with elevated PT and INR (which indicates impaired clotting ability), FFP is used to replace the clotting factors and help reverse the effects of warfarin.
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