A client who has been on a mechanical ventilator for three days develops a fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit green sputum, and right lower lobe crackles. The nurse contacts the physician regarding possible development of which complication?
Ventilator -associated pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Stress ulcer
Pneumothorax
The Correct Answer is A
A) Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP):
Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is a type of pneumonia that develops in patients who have been on mechanical ventilation for more than 48 hours. It is a common and serious complication in critically ill patients on ventilators. Symptoms such as fever, green sputum, and right lower lobe crackles are indicative of a respiratory infection, which, in this case, is most likely VAP. VAP typically presents with signs of infection such as elevated temperature, purulent sputum, and new infiltrates on a chest x-ray, in addition to lung crackles.
B) Pulmonary embolism (PE):
Although pulmonary embolism (PE) can cause symptoms like tachypnea, chest pain, and dyspnea, it does not typically cause a fever, green sputum, or localized crackles in the lungs. PE is usually characterized by sudden onset of respiratory distress, often accompanied by hemoptysis or chest pain, and would not typically present with the localized findings in the lower lobe (e.g., crackles).
C) Stress ulcer:
Stress ulcers can occur in critically ill patients, especially those on mechanical ventilation, due to the stress response and reduced blood flow to the stomach. However, stress ulcers typically cause gastrointestinal symptoms, such as melena (black, tarry stools) or hematemesis (vomiting blood).
D) Pneumothorax:
A pneumothorax occurs when air accumulates in the pleural space, causing a collapse of the lung. It can lead to symptoms such as sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and diminished breath sounds on one side of the chest. However, it would not typically cause fever, green sputum, or localized crackles.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Insert an oral airway and suction as needed:
This is generally not the first intervention for impaired glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus nerve (CN X) function. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves play a critical role in swallowing, gag reflex, and the ability to protect the airway. While an airway might be necessary in cases of severe dysfunction, withholding food and fluids is a more immediate and specific concern when these cranial nerves are impaired, as it prevents aspiration risk.
B) Withhold oral fluids and food:
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is involved in taste and swallowing, and the vagus nerve (CN X) is crucial for the motor control of the pharynx and larynx, which are involved in swallowing and protecting the airway. Dysfunction of these nerves can lead to difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), increased risk for aspiration, and the inability to protect the airway effectively. Withholding oral fluids and food helps prevent aspiration, a major risk when these nerves are impaired, until further assessment and management can be done.
C) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea:
While it is important to protect the cornea in patients with cranial nerve dysfunction (specifically the facial nerve, CN VII), this does not directly relate to the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves affect swallowing and airway protection, not eye lubrication. Applying artificial tears would not address the risk associated with impaired swallowing or airway protection.
D) Speak clearly while facing the patient:
Although speaking clearly and facing the patient might be helpful for communication, especially if the patient has difficulty with speech due to nerve impairment, it does not address the immediate and more critical concern of impaired swallowing and airway protection associated with dysfunction of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The primary concern is ensuring the patient is not at risk for aspiration while eating or drinking.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Prolonged prothrombin time (PT):
A prolonged PT is a sign of impaired coagulation, which is common in DIC as the clotting factors are consumed. In DIC, both clotting and bleeding occur, leading to prolonged PT. Therefore, a prolonged PT does not reflect a positive outcome. A positive outcome would show normalization or improvement of the clotting profile.
B) Elevated fibrinogen level:
Fibrinogen is often decreased in DIC because it is consumed in the process of forming clots. An elevated fibrinogen level would not indicate a positive outcome in DIC. Instead, fibrinogen levels typically fall in DIC due to widespread clotting activity. A positive outcome would involve a normalization or increase in fibrinogen levels as the condition improves.
C) Decreased platelet count:
Platelet count typically decreases in DIC because platelets are used up in the formation of clots, leading to thrombocytopenia. A decreased platelet count reflects ongoing consumption of platelets and would not be a positive indicator of improvement. In a positive outcome, the platelet count would increase toward normal levels.
D) Decreased D-dimer level:
D-dimer is a product of fibrin degradation and is elevated in conditions like DIC, where abnormal clotting and fibrinolysis are occurring. A decreased D-dimer level indicates that the coagulation process is resolving, and fibrin degradation is returning to normal, reflecting a positive outcome. Monitoring the D-dimer level is a key indicator of improvement in DIC.
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