A client is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider (HCP) believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours, and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
Treats type 2 diabetes with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
Client’s current age is 65 and the father died of a myocardial infarction (MI) at 55.
Reports being intolerant to medications containing aspirin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is an absolute contraindication for tPA, as it increases the risk of recurrent bleeding. tPA’s thrombolytic action can exacerbate intracranial hemorrhage, posing a life-threatening risk. This recent event (2 months ago) prohibits tPA use, per cardiology and stroke guidelines.
Choice B reason: Type 2 diabetes treated with oral hypoglycemics is not a contraindication for tPA. Diabetes may increase cardiovascular risk, but it does not affect tPA’s bleeding risk. This history is irrelevant to tPA administration safety, making it incorrect for contraindicating thrombolytic therapy in AMI.
Choice C reason: Age 65 and a family history of MI at 55 are risk factors for AMI but not contraindications for tPA. tPA is safe within age limits, and family history does not increase bleeding risk. This choice is incorrect, as these factors do not preclude thrombolytic therapy.
Choice D reason: Aspirin intolerance is not a contraindication for tPA, though aspirin is often co-administered. tPA’s bleeding risk is unrelated to aspirin sensitivity. Alternative antiplatelets can be used if needed, making this incorrect, as intolerance does not prohibit tPA use in acute myocardial infarction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased red blood cell count indicates anemia, which may cause fatigue or exacerbate ischemia but is not a direct marker of atherosclerosis. Angina results from arterial plaque buildup, driven by elevated LDL cholesterol. Low RBCs do not contribute to plaque formation, making this inconsistent with the diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Elevated LDL cholesterol is a primary risk factor for atherosclerosis, as it deposits in arterial walls, forming plaques that narrow coronary arteries, causing angina. In overweight smokers with stress, high LDL is a key driver of cardiovascular disease, directly supporting the pathophysiology of angina, per evidence-based lipid guidelines.
Choice C reason: Decreased triglycerides are not associated with atherosclerosis, which is driven by high LDL and low HDL. Triglycerides contribute to cardiovascular risk when elevated, but low levels do not cause angina. Elevated LDL is the critical lipid abnormality in this client’s angina due to coronary artery narrowing.
Choice D reason: Increased HDL cholesterol is protective against atherosclerosis, as it removes cholesterol from arteries, reducing plaque formation. Angina is associated with low HDL and high LDL. High HDL would mitigate, not cause, the client’s condition, making this inconsistent with the diagnosis of atherosclerosis-induced angina.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mixed sensorineural-conductive hearing loss involves both inner ear and middle ear pathology. Ototoxic medications primarily damage cochlear hair cells, causing sensorineural loss. Mixed loss requires dual mechanisms (e.g., infection and ototoxicity), which are less likely than pure sensorineural loss from medication in this acute scenario.
Choice B reason: Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss, not medication-induced. Ototoxic drugs cause acute, bilateral sensorineural loss by damaging cochlear hair cells, unrelated to aging. The client’s new onset loss linked to medication points to ototoxicity, not presbycusis, making this an incorrect type for this scenario.
Choice C reason: Conductive hearing loss results from middle ear or external ear issues, like wax or ossicle damage. Ototoxic medications target inner ear hair cells, causing sensorineural loss. Conductive loss is unrelated to ototoxicity, as drugs do not affect sound conduction, making this incorrect for medication-induced hearing loss.
Choice D reason: Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by ototoxic medications, which damage cochlear hair cells or auditory nerves, impairing sound processing. Bilateral, new-onset loss aligns with ototoxicity’s pathophysiology, as seen with drugs like aminoglycosides. This is the expected type, supported by audiology evidence linking ototoxins to inner ear damage.
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