A client is prescribed metronidazole, an antimicrobial agent, orally for 10 days. When performing discharge teaching, which statement(s) should be included in the instruction? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Complete all doses of metronidazole in your prescription

Do not drink alcohol while taking metronidazole and for 2 days after you finish the pills.

Use a barrier form of contraception while taking medication

Strain all urine for crystal fragments

The drug may change your urine's color to pale yellow

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C

A.   This statement is correct and crucial. Completing the full course of antibiotics is essential to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent antibiotic resistance.
B.   Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction (similar to what occurs with alcohol and disulfiram) if alcohol is consumed during treatment or shortly after. Symptoms can include flushing, nausea, vomiting, and palpitations.
C.   Metronidazole can potentially reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Using a barrier method, like condoms, can help prevent unintended pregnancy during treatment.
D.   This statement is not necessary. Metronidazole is not typically associated with crystalluria or the need to strain urine for crystal fragments. This instruction does not apply to this medication.
E.   This statement is inaccurate. While metronidazole can cause darkening of the urine, it is not specifically known to change urine to pale yellow. Typically, discoloration could be more of a brown or dark color, and pale yellow is not a common effect of this medication.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A. The nurse should notify the prescriber about the current dose (7 mL/hr) because the patient is ordered 1600 units of heparin per hour. The current infusion rate needs to be assessed in relation to the aPTT result, especially if the aPTT indicates that the patient may be at risk for bleeding.
B. While having a second IV may be useful for administering fluids or medications in case of a bleeding emergency, there is no immediate indication for IV 0.9 saline in this scenario. The priority is to assess the heparin dosage and aPTT before making additional IV arrangements.
C. It’s important to assess the IV site for signs of infiltration, especially since the patient is on heparin therapy. Infiltration can affect the effectiveness of the medication and cause complications, so this assessment is vital.
D. While it is important to verify lab results, the nurse should primarily focus on addressing the current situation regarding the heparin infusion and the patient’s anticoagulation status rather than confirming lab results with the lab technician at this moment.
E. While protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin, it is not warranted based solely on the aPTT result of 37 seconds. The normal aPTT range is typically around 30-40 seconds, depending on the laboratory standards, and the aPTT may not indicate that the patient requires reversal of heparin at this time.

A. Prone with arms elevated B. Supine with the stump flat on the bed C. Supine with the stump supported on pillows D. Reverse Trendelenburg

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While positioning a patient prone can help with certain surgical recovery situations, it is not typically used immediately after an above-the-knee amputation. Additionally, elevating the arms may not provide any benefit and could cause discomfort.
B. This position can increase the risk of contractures in the residual limb, especially with an above-the- knee amputation. Keeping the stump flat may also lead to swelling and discomfort.
C. This position allows for proper elevation of the stump, which can help reduce swelling and promote healing. Supporting the stump on pillows prevents the risk of contractures and maintains the limb in a neutral position. It provides comfort and stability while facilitating blood flow.
D. While this position can help with venous return and reduce the risk of complications such as orthostatic hypotension, it is not specifically beneficial for an above-the-knee amputation recovery. It may not adequately address the need for proper stump support and elevation.

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A client is prescribed metronidazole, an antimicrobial agent, orally for 10 days. When performing discharge teaching, which statement(s) should be included in the instruction? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the nursing unit from the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) 40 minutes ago following an above the knee amputation (AKA) of the right leg. In which position should the nurse place the client at this time?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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